Let's call
x = Amount of candy sold at $ 0.15.
y = Amount of candy sold at $ 0.08.
We must make the following system of equations:
x + y = 17
0.15x + 0.08y = 1.92
Solving the system of equations:
0.15x + 0.08 (17-x) = 1.92
0.15x-0.08x + 1.36 = 1.92
0.15x-0.08x = 1.92-1.36
0.07x = 0.56
x = 0.56 / 0.07 = 8
On the other hand,
x + y = 17
8 + y = 17
y = 17-8 = 9
Finally, Timmy bought 8 pieces of candy for $ 0.15.
Hello.
To sell a regul pencail you need to make it sound better then what it is like "<span>This pencil is brand new, never used. It has grade “2” lead and a bright yellow color so it’s easy to find. It comes with a built in eraser,” Or maket it in a diferent way.
A good maraketing tatic is to see how much peopel use pencails or how much do you go throught to make them think they need more then they really do. You should also do a place that might be close to them and have a low price.
And you could do more questiont then quality,
Have a nice day</span>
Answer:
A. $86,900
Explanation:
Henry’s capital account will be credited by the amount of $86,900. See computation below.
Cash $57,300
Equipment 34,100
Inventory 10,400
Note payable (14,900)
————
Total $86,900
*Both the equipment and the inventory will be recorded on partnership’s book at fair market value at the time of contribution.
*The partnership may absorb the obligation if it is associated with an asset contributed by partner. Thus, it will be deducted to his capital account as contribution to the partnership.
Answer:
Break-even point in units= 2,800
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Fixed csots= $140,000
Unitary variable cost= 80 - 10= $70
Selling price per unit= $120
<u>To calculate the new break-even point in units, we need to use the following formula:</u>
Break-even point in units= fixed costs/ contribution margin per unit
Break-even point in units= 140,000 / (120 - 70)
Break-even point in units= 2,800
Answer:
Find detailed explanation below
Explanation:
The required future amount of 2308 is the future value of the amount invested today, hence, using the future value formula as provided below, we can determine the length of time it takes Lamar to accumulate enough money for the project.
FV=PV*(1+r/n)^mn
FV=2308
PV=2000
r=4%(assumed in order to explain the concept of the time value of money in a clearer context)
n=2(interest is compounded semiannually, twice a year)
m=number of years it takes to accumulate enough money=unknown
2308=2000*(1+4%/2)^2*m
2308/2000=(1.02)^2*m
1.154=1.0404^m
take the log of both sides
ln(1.154)=m ln(1.0404)
m=ln(1.154)/ln(1.0404)
m=3.62 years