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Bas_tet [7]
3 years ago
15

A charged particle is accelerated in a uniform electric field. When its velocity is 2 m/s, its electric potential energy is 100

J and its kinetic energy is 10 J. What is the particle's potential energy when its velocity reaches 4 m/s?
Physics
1 answer:
zavuch27 [327]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

particle's potential energy = 70J

Explanation:

From conservation of energy; K1 + Ue1 = K2 + Ue2

where K1 and K2 are the kinetic energies at two positions and Ue1 and Uue2 are the electrical potential energies at two positions.

k1 = 10J, Ue1 = 100J

K2 = 40J

substitute into K1 + Ue1 = K2 + Ue2

Ue2 = K1 + Ue1 - K2

= 10 +100 - 40

Ue2 = 70J

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charge, q1 =5.00μC, is at the origin, a second charge, q2= -3μC, is on the x-axis 0.800m from the origin. find the electric fiel
IRISSAK [1]

Answer:

Explanation:

Electric field due to charge at origin

= k Q / r²

k is a constant , Q is charge and r is distance

= 9 x 10⁹ x 5 x 10⁻⁶ / .5²

= 180 x 10³ N /C

In vector form

E₁ = 180 x 10³ j

Electric field due to q₂ charge

= 9 x 10⁹ x 3 x 10⁻⁶ /.5² + .8²

= 30.33 x 10³ N / C

It will have negative slope θ with x axis

Tan θ = .5 / √.5² + .8²

= .5 / .94

θ = 28°

E₂ = 30.33 x 10³ cos 28 i - 30.33 x 10³ sin28j

= 26.78 x 10³ i - 14.24 x 10³ j

Total electric field

E = E₁  + E₂

= 180 x 10³ j +26.78 x 10³ i - 14.24 x 10³ j

= 26.78 x 10³ i + 165.76 X 10³ j

magnitude

= √(26.78² + 165.76² ) x 10³ N /C

= 167.8 x 10³  N / C .

3 0
3 years ago
 State how a ray of light can travel from air into glass without bending?
Katyanochek1 [597]

Answer:

If you shine a beam of light (a bundle of parallel rays) through the air, it will travel in a straight line. Rays of light usually travel in straight lines until they hit something. If a ray of light hits the surface of a sheet of glass, some light will be reflected by the surface of the glass.

Explanation:

STREAM LALISA AND MONEY

6 0
2 years ago
Letícia leaves the grocery store and walks 150.0 m to the parking lot. Then, she turns 90° to the right and walks an additional
Alexxx [7]

Answer:

165.529454

Explanation:

According to the Pythagorean Theorem for calculating the lengths of a right angle triangle's sides, a^2 + b+2 = c^2, where c is the longest side (and the side opposing the right angle). So in your case it would be 150*150 + 70*70 = 27400. And √ 27400 is your answer.

7 0
3 years ago
ow long must a simple pendulum be if it is to make exactly ten swings per second? (That is, one complete vibration takes exactly
Igoryamba
The period T of a pendulum is given by:
T=2 \pi  \sqrt{ \frac{L}{g} }
where L is the length of the pendulum while g=9.81 m/s^2 is the gravitational acceleration.

In the pendulum of the problem, one complete vibration takes exactly 0.200 s, this means its period is T=0.200 s. Using this data, we can solve the previous formula to find L:
L=g ( \frac{T}{2\pi} )^2=(9.81 m/s^2)( \frac{0.2 s}{2 \pi} )^2=1 \cdot 10^{-3} m=1 mm
4 0
3 years ago
What are the components of friction?
Tresset [83]
<h2>Answer:</h2>

<u>Friction:</u>

When an object slips on a surface, an opposing force acts between the tangent planes which acts in the opposite direction of motion. This opposing force is called Friction. Or in other words, Friction is the opposing force that opposes the motion between two surfaces.

The main component of friction are:

<u>Normal Reaction (R): </u>

Suppose a block is placed on a table in the above picture, which is in resting state, then two forces are acting on it at that time.

The first is due to its weight mg which is working from its center of gravity towards the vertical bottom.

The second one is superimposed vertically upwards by the table on the block, called the reaction force (P). This force passes through the center of gravity of the block.

Due to P = mg, the box is in equilibrium position on the table.

<u>Coefficient of friction ( </u>μ )<u>: </u>

The ratio of the force of friction and the reaction force is called the coefficient of friction.

Coefficient of friction, µ = force of friction / reaction force

μ = F / R

The coefficient of friction is volume less and dimensionless.

Its value is between 0 to 1.

<u>Advantage and disadvantage from friction force: </u>

  • The advantage of the force of friction is that due to friction, we can walk on the earth without slipping.
  • Brakes in all vehicles are due to the force of friction.
  • We can write on the board only because of the force of friction.
  • The disadvantage of this force is that due to friction, some parts of energy are lost in the machines and there is wear and tear on the machines.

<u>How to reduce friction: </u>

  • Using lubricants (oil or grease) in machines.
  • Friction can be reduced by using ball bearings etc.
  • Using a soap solution and powder.

4 0
3 years ago
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