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natita [175]
3 years ago
11

Theuniversityadministrationassuresamathematicianthathehasonly1chancein 10,000 of being trapped in a much-maligned elevator in th

e mathematics building. if he goes to work 5 days a week, 52 weeks a year, for 10 years, and always rides the elevator up to his office when he first arrives, what is the probability that he will never be trapped? that he will be trapped once? twice? assume that the outcomes on all the days are mutually independent (a dubious assumption in practice)
Business
1 answer:
Pachacha [2.7K]3 years ago
8 0
<span>Never being trapped = 77.10% Being trapped exactly once = 20.05% Being trapped exactly twice = 2.61% First, determine how many time the professor will ride the elevator, which will be 5 times 52 time 10 = 2600 times. The probability of his never being trapped will be (1-1/10000)^2600 = 0.771041562 = 77.1041562% which rounds to 77.1% Being trapped once is the probability of being trapped on just the 1st day, plus the probability of being trapped on just the second day, ..., plus the probability of being trapped on just the last day. So 0.0001 * 0.9999^2599 + 0.9999 * 0.0001 * 0.9999^2598 + 0.9999^2 * 0.0001 * 0.9999^2597 + ... + 0.9999^2599 * 0.0001 = (0.0001 * 0.9999^2599) * 2600 = 0.200490855 = 20.05% For being trapped exactly twice, the same type of calculation is done with the base value being 0.0001^2 * 0.9999^2598 The number of times the base value is multiplied will be the number of ways you can pick 2 days out of a set of 2600 days, which is 2600/(2!2598!) = 3378700 So we have (0.0001^2 * 0.9999^2598) * 3378700 = 0.026056392 = 2.61% The general formula for being trapped on exactly n days is 0.0001^n * 0.9999 ^ (2600-n) * 2600!/(n!(2600-n)!)</span>
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Answer:

$0

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As we know in the case of goodwill, the impairment test is to be done on periodic basis and if there is any fall in the value so the same is to be reported as the impairment loss

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Emerald Co. uses a perpetual inventory system and records purchases of merchandise at net cost. The company recently purchased 2
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Answer:

Dr accounts payable   $2,300

Cr cash                                      $2300

Explanation:

Initially the cost of the purchases=$4600

Returning half of the disc means the left for the discs actually bought is half of the invoice price of $4600 i.e $2,300

By not paying within the discount period implies that the debt stands at $2,300

Without mincing words,payment of $2,300 to the supplier automatically translates to debiting account payable with $2,300 and crediting cash account with the same amount.

The correct answer would :

Dr accounts payable   $2,300

Cr cash                                      $2300

This is missing from the options provided.

3 0
3 years ago
Consider a hypothetical economy in which the marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is 0.50. That is, if disposable income increas
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Answer:

The level of saving =  $450 billion - $400 billion= $50 billion

Marginal propensity to save = 1- marginal propensity to consume (MPC)=0.5

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postal express is considering the purchase of a new sorting machine. the sales quote consists of quarterly payments of $37,200 f
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The five-year sales quote includes quarterly payments of $37,200 at a 7.6% interest rate. The price of the acquisition is $614,184.40.

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PMT stands for "payment," therefore the name of the function. A PMT method can estimate your monthly payments, for instance, if you are looking for a $30,000 car loan with a two-year term and an annual interest rate of 7%.

<h3>In the fv formula, what is PMT?</h3>

PV = present value, and FV=PMT(1+i)((1+i)N - 1)/i Future Value (FV) Payment per period (PMT) I = percent per period interest rate N is the number of cycles.

Quarterly Payment = PMT = $37,400

Interest Rates = r = 7.6% per year = 0.076 per year = 0.076 / 4 = 0.019 per quarter

Number of years = 5 years

Number of Payment = n = 5 years x 4 quarters per year = 20 quarters

PV = PMT x (1 - [1 / (1 +r)^n]) / r

PV = $37,200 x (1 - [1 / (1 +0.019)^20]) / 0.019

PV = $614,184.40

Learn more about PMT: brainly.com/question/12890163

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