Answer:
The bad debts expense for 2015 would be $ 28,000
Explanation:
The balance of the allowance for doubtful account should be equal to the amount estimated to be uncollectible based on the ageing analysis
Estimated uncollectible account $ 31,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts prior to adjustment <u>$ 3,000</u>
Bad debts expense for the year to be recorded <u> $ 28,000</u>
The accounting entry to record this is as follows:
Bad debts expense Debit $ 28,000
Allowance for uncollectible accounts Credit $ 28,000
Assuming the user took advantage of this offer, the amount that would be discounted on a $10,000 invoice is: $200.
<h3>
Discounted amount </h3>
Using this formula
Discounted amount =Discount rate× Invoice
Let plug in the formula
Discounted amount=2%×$10,000
Discounted amount=$200
Therefore assuming the user took advantage of this offer, the amount that would be discounted on a $10,000 invoice is: $200.
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You can make 9 into a fraction with the denominator of 56.
8/9= 48/56 (multiply both by 6)
Just add three to the numerator. We can round 48 to 50, so:
50/56+3/56= 53/56 That would be the estimation.
I hope this helps!
~kaikers
Answer:
10.23%
Explanation:
Formula for computation of equivalent taxable yield is r = rm/1-t. Where the tax rate is t, rm is Yield on municipal bond and r is Tax equivalent yield
r = rm/1-t
r = 6.75% / 1 - 34%
r = 6.75% / 0.66%
r = 10.22727272727273%
r = 10.23%
So, the equivalent taxable yield to a taxpayer in a combined federal plus state 34% tax bracket is 10.23%.
Answer:
d)Tier 2
Explanation:
from the question we are informed about jones Manufacturing sells a part to Lear Corporation.Lear puts this part into a radio,which Lear then sells to Ford.From Ford's point of view, in this case Jones Manufacturing is tier 2. Tier 2 capital can be regarded as second layer of capital which serve as a required reserves of a bankIt contains revaluation reserves as well as hybrid capital instruments
