Answer:
1/26=4/104
Step-by-step explanation:
The probability of pulling a diamond if completely shuffled properly, is a 1/4. Because there are 4 suits. This is only if, there are no jokers.
And the probability of pulling a jack, is a 4/51. Because there are 4 jacks out of the 51 cards, but you already pulled out a diamond card, so you take 1 out.
Multiply them together, and you will get 4/104 = 1/26
There is a 1/26 chance of pulling out a diamond card, then a jack.
Answer:
i think that in total, he spent $385
Step-by-step explanation:
70 times 5, and then find 10% of that
Answer:
N( -2, -9) K( 5, -8) L( 8, -9) M (5,- 10)
Step-by-step explanation:
So basically there is an increase by 15% and 35% of $35.
You find out:
5 % of $ 35 = 1.75
10% of $35 = 3.5
15% of $35 = 5.25
30% of $35 = 10.5
35% of $ 35 = 11.25
5.25 + 11.25 = $16.5
$35 + $16.5 = $51.5
The answer is $51.50
I hope this was helpful and the brainliest answer :p
A circle is 360° all the way around; therefore, if you divide anarc's<span> degree measure by 360°, you find the fraction of the circle's circumference that the </span>arc<span> makes up. Then, if you multiply the length all the way around the circle (the circle's circumference) by that fraction, you get the length along the</span>arc<span>.</span>
