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goldenfox [79]
2 years ago
15

A minimum wage below $10 per hour is not a binding minimum wage in this market. (Economists call a minimum wage that prevents th

e labor market from reaching equilibrium a binding minimum wage.)a. True b. False
Business
1 answer:
wel2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

False

Explanation:

Binding minimum wage refers to the minimum wage that not just prevent the labor market from reaching equilibrium but also exceed the wage equilibrium in the market. If the minimum wage is set higher than the equilibrium, most people in the market have to move the wage equilibrium up.

Given that economists call a minimum wage that prevents the labor market from reaching equilibrium a binding minimum wage.

So,  a minimum wage below $10 per hour is a binding minimum wage in this market.

Hence, the given statement is false.

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qwelly [4]
About 78,000 until the turn over
5 0
2 years ago
What is your reaction to Harriet's suggestion of using the cost of debt only?
Ahat [919]

Answer:

No, it is a bad idea to use only the cost of debt

Explanation:

Only using the cost of debt, is not a good idea because too much amount of borrowing could lose the confidence of the investors and it could lead to the uncertainty in the future cash flows.

Suppliers might be worried regarding the financial situation and lead to the supply disruption. Though, the debt might save the tax expenses, which could lead to the negative cash flow.

When the company does not have adequate amount of cash at hand, it could cause many disruptions of financial. WACC (Weighted Average Cost of Capital) rates need to be used as the capital costs as it weigh the used capital cost and the used debt.

8 0
3 years ago
A perfect hedge (full coverage) on translation exposure can usually be achieved when which of the following occurs? a. Using a f
attashe74 [19]

Answer:

e). None of the above, because a perfect hedge does not exist

A perfect hedge is nearly impossible

Explanation:

A perfect hedge is a position undertaken by an investor that would eliminate the risk of an existing position, or a position that eliminates all market risk from a portfolio. In order to be a perfect hedge, a position would need to have a 100% inverse correlation to the initial position.

At the time of taking an opposite position in Derivatives Market, Perfect Hedge would mean covering the risk involved in the Cash Market Position completely, i.e. 100%. 2. Imperfect Hedge: When the position in the cash market is not completely hedged or not hedged to 100%, then such a hedge is called Imperfect Hedge.

6 0
2 years ago
“The Designers” an international furniture making company wants to expand its business in Pakistan by introducing its specialize
tankabanditka [31]

Answer:

a. I would consider consider leasing since the profits gained from leasing ($216,978,355.60) is greater compared to the profits if a spot rate is considered ($214,676,191.10) in 4 years.

b. I would consider consider leasing since the value gained from leasing ($123,553,875.20) is greater compared to the value if a spot rate is considered ($120,982,986.80) in 2 years.  

Explanation:

a. Determine best option

<em>Step 1: Determine total revenue per year if they meet the demand.</em>

Total revenue per year=revenue per chair×number of chairs per year

where;

revenue per chair=Rs.20,000

number of chairs per year=4,000 units

replacing;

Total revenue per year=(20,000×4,000)=$80,000,000

<em>Step 2: Determine the net revenue per year for Leasing</em>

Net revenue=total revenue-total cost for leasing

total cost for leasing=cost per chair per square feet×area per chair×number of chairs

where;

cost per chair per square feet=10,000/100=$100

area per chair=10 square feet

number of chairs=4,000

replacing;

total cost for leasing=100×10×4,000=$4,000,000

Net revenue=80,000,000-4,000,000=76,000,000 per year

<em>Step 3: Determine the present value of the net revenue per year for Leasing</em>

Year       Future cash flow            Present cash flow                 Amount

 1            76,000,000               76,000,000/{(1+0.15)^1}         66,086,956.52

 2           76,000,000               76,000,000/{(1+0.15)^2}         57,466,918.71

 3           76,000,000               76,000,000/{(1+0.15)^3}         49,971,233.66

 4           76,000,000               76,000,000/{(1+0.15)^4}         43,453,246.67

Total present value of the future net revenue for leasing=(66,086,956.52+57,466,918.71+49,971,233.66+43,453,246.67)=

$216,978,355.60

<em>Step 3: Determine the present value for the cost for spot Market rate</em>

Since the spot market rate is paid once;

Total cost=(15,000/100)×10×4,000=$6,000,000

Total cost in four years=6,000,000×4=$24,000,000

Present value of spot rate cost=24,000,000/{(1+0.15)^4}=$13,722,077.89

<em>Step 4: Determine the present value of the revenue per year </em>

Year       Future cash flow            Present cash flow                 Amount

 1            80,000,000               80,000,000/{(1+0.15)^1}         69,565,217.39

 2           80,000,000               80,000,000/{(1+0.15)^2}         60,491,493.38

 3           80,000,000               80,000,000/{(1+0.15)^3}         52,601,298.59

 4           80,000,000               80,000,000/{(1+0.15)^4}         45,740,259.65

Present value of Total revenue=69,565,217.39+60,491,493.38+52,601,298.59+45,740,259.65=

$228,398,269

<em>Step 5: Determine the present value of the net revenue per year for sport rate</em>

Net present value=(228,398,269-13,722,077.89)=$214,676,191.10

I would consider consider leasing since the profits gained from leasing ($216,978,355.60) is greater compared to the profits if a spot rate is considered ($214,676,191.10).

b.

<em>Step 6: Consider NPV for 2 years if they Lease</em>

Year       Future cash flow            Present cash flow                 Amount

 1            76,000,000               76,000,000/{(1+0.15)^1}         66,086,956.52

 2           76,000,000               76,000,000/{(1+0.15)^2}         57,466,918.71

Net present value=(66,086,956.52+57,466,918.71)=$123,553,875.20

<em>Step 7: Consider total revenue if the use a spot rate</em>

Year       Future cash flow            Present cash flow                 Amount

 1            80,000,000               80,000,000/{(1+0.15)^1}         69,565,217.39

 2           80,000,000               80,000,000/{(1+0.15)^2}         60,491,493.38

Total revenue=(69,565,217.39+60,491,493.38)=$130,056,710.80

<em>Step 7: Consider cost for 2 years if they use a spot rate</em>

Total cost=6,000,000×2=$12,000,000

Present value=12,000,000/{(1+0.15)^2}=$9,073,724.008

Net present value=130,056,710.80-9,073,724.008=$120,982,986.80

I would consider consider leasing since the value gained from leasing ($123,553,875.20) is greater compared to the value if a spot rate is considered ($120,982,986.80) in 2 years.

6 0
3 years ago
WILL MARK BRAINLIEST
lana66690 [7]

Answer:

I think blank 1- is B but not sur.

<h2> <em>Hoping </em><em>you </em><em>have </em><em>a </em><em>good </em><em>day </em></h2>
5 0
3 years ago
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