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QveST [7]
3 years ago
8

100 POINTS. PLEASE PROVIDE EXPLANATION

Physics
1 answer:
maksim [4K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

60 kg

80 kg

Explanation:

Work is equal to the change in energy.

W = ΔE = E − E₀

Let's start with block B.  The work done by the tension force is equal to the change in energy.  Initially, the block has potential energy.  Finally, the block has kinetic energy.

W = ΔE

FΔy = ½ mv² − mgh

T (-2.0 m) = ½ m (6.00 m/s)² − m (10 m/s²) (2.0 m)

T (-2.0 m) = m (-2 m²/s²)

T = m (1 m/s²)

Now let's look at block A.  The work done by tension and against friction is equal to the change in energy.  Initially, the block has no energy.  Finally, it has both kinetic and potential energy.

W = ΔE

Fd = ½ mv² + mgh − 0

(T − Nμ) (2.0 m) = ½ (4.00 kg) (6.00 m/s)² + (4.00 kg) (10 m/s²) (⅗ × 2.0 m)

(T − Nμ) (2.0 m) = 120 J

T − Nμ = 60 N

Draw a free body diagram of block A and sum the forces in the perpendicular direction to find the normal force N.

N = mg cos θ

N = (4.00 kg) (10 m/s²) (⅘)

N = 32 N

Substitute:

T − 32μ = 60 N

If μ = 0, then T = 60 N and m = 60 kg.

If μ = ⅝, then T = 80 N and m = 80 kg.

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PLEASE HELP!!!! WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST!!! WORTH 20 PTS!!!!!
Leona [35]

Answer:

Explanation:

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6 0
3 years ago
In which electric circuit would the voltmeter read 10 volts ?
ki77a [65]

Given that,

Voltage = 10 volt

Suppose, The three resistance is connected in parallel and each resistance is 12 Ω. find the current in the electric circuit.

We need to calculate the equivalent resistance

Using formula of parallel

\dfrac{1}{R}=\dfrac{1}{R_{1}}+\dfrac{1}{R_{2}}+\dfrac{1}{R_{3}}

Put the value into the formula

\dfrac{1}{R}=\dfrac{1}{12}+\dfrac{1}{12}+\dfrac{1}{12}

\dfrac{1}{R}=\dfrac{1}{4}

R=4\ \Omega

We need to calculate the current in the circuit

Using ohm's law

V=IR

I=\dfrac{V}{R}

Where, V = voltage

R = resistance

Put the value into the formula

I=\dfrac{10}{4}

I=2.5\ A

Hence, The current in the circuit is 2.5 A

4 0
3 years ago
As you may well know, placing metal objects inside a microwave oven can generate sparks. Two of your friends are arguing over th
Fofino [41]

Answer:

5.04\cdot 10^8 A

Explanation:

The work function of the metal corresponds to the minimum energy needed to extract a photoelectron from the metal. In this case, it is:

\phi = 3.950\cdot 10^{-19}J

So, the energy of the incoming photon hitting on the metal must be at least equal to this value.

The energy of a photon is given by

E=\frac{hc}{\lambda}

where

h is the Planck's constant

c is the speed of light

\lambda is the wavelength of the photon

Using E=\phi and solving for \lambda, we find the maximum wavelength of the radiation that will eject electrons from the metal:

\lambda=\frac{hc}{E}=\frac{(6.63\cdot 10^{-34} Js)(3\cdot 10^8 m/s)}{3.950\cdot 10^{-19} J}=5.04\cdot 10^{-7}m

And since

1 angstrom = 10^{-15}m

The wavelength in angstroms is

\lambda=\frac{5.04\cdot 10^{-7} m}{10^{-15} m/A}=5.04\cdot 10^8 A

3 0
4 years ago
Help meee please fill in the blanks !!
Ratling [72]

The atomic number is the simply the number of protons in the atom. So in the first row with atomic number 2, the number of protons is 2.

If the atom has no charge, which I think you can assume for all of these, the number of electrons is equal to the number of protons. So the number of electrons is also 2.

The number of neutrons (which are the particles with no charge in the nucleus) is simply the mass number minus the atomic number i.e. 4 - 2 = 2.

The isotopic symbol is the symbol which is found on the periodic table of elements. There are 2 numbers associated which each element on the table. The larger is the mass number and the smaller is the atomic number. The atomic number or number of protons is what identifies the element. Looking at the periodic table ( https://sciencenotes.org/wp-content/uploads/2015/01/PeriodicTableOfTheElementsBW.pdf or https://simple.wikipedia.org/wiki/Periodic_table_(big) ), it can be seen that the element on the first row above with an atomic number of 2 is Helium with a symbol He. The number that is included with the name is simply the mass number which is 4 in this case, which tells us that this type of helium has 2 neutrons.

Another type (or isotope) of helium is Helium-3 which has one neutron.

Try the next row and post back if you have trouble with it

3 0
3 years ago
Convert the volume 8.06 in.3 to m3, recalling that1in. =2.54cmand100cm=1m. Answer in units of m3.
galina1969 [7]
1 in=2.54 cm=(2.54 cm)(1 m/100 cm)=0.0254 m
Therefore:
1 in=0.0254 m
1 in³=(0.0254 m)³=1.6387064 x 10⁻⁵ m³

Therefore:

8.06 in³=(8.06 in³)(1.6387064 x 10⁻⁵ m³ / 1 in³)≈1.321 x 10⁻⁴ m³.

Answer: 8.06 in³=1.321 x 10⁻⁴ m³
8 0
3 years ago
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