Answer:
D.
Step-by-step explanation:
Remember that the limit definition of a derivative at a point is:
Hence, if we let f(x) be ln(x+1) and a be 1, this will yield:
Hence, the limit is equivalent to the derivative of f(x) at x=1, or f’(1).
The answer will thus be D.
Final Answer: No Solution
Steps/Reasons/Explanation:
Question:
<u>Step 1</u>: Divide both sides by .
<u>Step 2</u>: Expand.
<u>Step 3</u>: Since is false, we have no solution.
No Solution
~I hope I helped you :)~
Answer: answer is C and D when dividing exponents you subtract and with negatives you turn it into a fraction
Step-by-step explanation: