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horsena [70]
4 years ago
5

So why it is a ration decision to make sure the marginal benefits outweighs the marginal costs? (Be detailed, you can use exampl

es.)​
Business
1 answer:
Rzqust [24]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

For the business to make profits

Explanation:

Marginals revenue is the additional income realized from the sale of an extra unit. It is the revenue that a firm will gain by selling one more unit of a product or service.

Marginal cost is the expense incurred in the production of one more unit of a product.  A business compares marginal revenue to marginal cost to decide if it will cease or continue with production and selling activities.

For a business to continue selling and make profits, marginal revenue must be greater than the marginal cost. In other words, the revenue realized by selling one extra unit must exceed the cost of producing that item. Selling one more unit when the marginal cost is more than the marginal revenue will result in a loss.

If the marginal revenue from a computer is $40 and the marginal cost is $50,  selling on extra computer results in a loss of $10. But if the marginal revenue from the same computer is $60, the sale on one more unit will be a gain of $10.

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If a U.S. citizen could buy £25,000 for $100,000, the rate of exchange for the pound would be
Natalka [10]

Answer:

<u>The rate of exchange for the £ is US$ 4</u>

Explanation:

1. Let's check the information provided to answer the question correctly:

Amount the U.S. citizen want to buy in £ = 25,000

Amount the U.S. citizen will pay in US$ = 100,000

2. Let's calculate the rate of exchange for the British pound £, this way:

Rate of exchange = Amount in US$/Amount in £

Rate of exchange = 100,000/25,000

<u>Rate of exchange = 4 US$ per £</u>

We can also express the rate for the US$, this way:

Rate of exchange = Amount in £/Amount in US$

Rate of exchange =25,000/100,000

Rate of exchange =  £ 0.25 per US$

5 0
3 years ago
Uptown Promotions has three divisions. As part of the planning process, the CFO requested that each division submit its capital
Levart [38]

Answer:

d. soft rationing

Explanation:

Soft rationing -

It is the process in which the company itselves takes the decision to limit the amount of capital , which is used for the investment for a given period of time , is known as soft rationing .

It is referred to as soft , as the decision is taken by the firm itself , where the changes and alteration all are done by the firm only according to the future goals and practices .

hence , from the question , the situation given , depicts - soft rationing .

7 0
3 years ago
Seigel Co. maintains a defined-benefit pension plan for its employees. At each balance sheet date, Seigel should report a pensio
chubhunter [2.5K]

Answer:

d.funded status relative to the accumulated benefit obligation.

Explanation:

Employees should be informed funded status relative to the accumulated benefit.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Select one or more of the choices below that would properly complete the following statement.When a nation runs a trade deficit,
castortr0y [4]

Answer: it experiences a capital inflow.

Explanation:

A trade deficit is a situation that occurs when the imports of a country is greater than the exports of the country. This is usually measured in monetary terms. For example, let's say in a certain year, the United States exported $3 trillion in goods and it imported goods worth $4 trillion, th n the trade deficit will be ($4 trillion - $3 trillion) = $1 trillion.

Trade deficit can be caused because of capital deficiency. This will then lead to capital flowing into the country that is experiencing the trade deficit.

3 0
3 years ago
Calculating Present Values. Suppose you are still committed to owning a $150,000 Ferrari (see Question 9). If you believe your m
luda_lava [24]

Answer:

All the options written are the steps involved in solving the problem. The formula that would be used is compounding formula because we have future value which is $150,000 and rate of return which is 10.25%. Furthermore, here n is 10 years time.

The formula is:

Future Value = Present Value * (1 + r)^n

$150,000 = Present Value * (1.1025)^10

$150,000 = Present Value * 2.6524

$150,000 / 2.6524 = Present Value

Present Value = $56553

So the amount that we should deposit in mutual funds today to buy Ferrari is $56553. The difference is due to rounding off.

3 0
3 years ago
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