Answer:
6
Step-by-step explanation:
The arc length is (2)(pi)(27)(40/360)=6pi.
So, k=6.
If you start at -40 you need 40 to get to 0 then add 40 to get there so B probly or C D
Answer:
3/2
Step-by-step explanation:
The answer is -8
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Explanation:
There are two ways to get this answer
Method 1 will have us plug x = 0 into h(x) to get
h(x) = x^2 - 4
h(0) = 0^2 - 4
h(0) = 0 - 4
h(0) = -4
Then this output is plugged into g(x) to get
g(x) = 2x
g(-4) = 2*(-4)
g(-4) = -8 which is the answer
This works because (g o h)(0) is the same as g(h(0)). Note how h(0) is replaced with -4
So effectively g(h(0)) = -8 which is the same as (g o h)(0) = -8
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The second method involves a bit algebra first
Start with the outer function g(x). Then replace every x with h(x). On the right side, we will replace h(x) with x^2-4 because h(x) = x^2-4
g(x) = 2x
g(x) = 2( x )
g(h(x)) = 2( h(x) ) ... replace every x with h(x)
g(h(x)) = 2( x^2-4 ) ... replace h(x) on the right side with x^2-4
g(h(x)) = 2x^2-8
(g o h)(x) = 2x^2-8
Now plug in x = 0
(g o h)(x) = 2x^2-8
(g o h)(0) = 2(0)^2-8
(g o h)(0) = 2(0)-8
(g o h)(0) = 0-8
(g o h)(0) = -8
Regardless of which method you use, the answer is -8
Answer:
x =−1−√93/23,−1+√93/23
Step-by-step explanation:
x=0.37581090…,−0.46276742...
