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dalvyx [7]
3 years ago
14

How many miles will be completed by a runner with a constant speed of 5 mph in 30 minutes?

Physics
1 answer:
Mrac [35]3 years ago
5 0
Distance=speed times time
speed=5mph=5 \frac{mi}{hr}
time=30mins=30/60hr=1/2hr

so
distance=speed times time
distance=(5\frac{mi}{hr})(\frac{1}{2}hr)
distance=\frac{5mi \space\ hr}{2hr}
distance=2.5mi

he will run 2.5 miles in 30 mins at the speed of 5mph
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A rock falls of a cliff and hits the ground after 3 seconds. What is it’s velocity right before it hits the ground? A.0.31 m/s B
LekaFEV [45]
Hopefully this will help you.

8 0
3 years ago
Starting from rest, a 2.3x10-4 kg flea springs straight upward. While the flea is pushing off from the ground, the ground exerts
Harman [31]

Answer:

3.13 m/s

Explanation:

From the question,

Since the flea spring started from rest,

Ek = W................... Equation 1

Where Ek = Kinetic Energy of the flea spring, W = work done on the flea spring.

But,

Ek = 1/2mv²............ Equation 2

Where m = mass of the flea spring, v = flea's speed when it leaves the ground.

substitute equation 2 into equation 1

1/2mv² = W.................... Equation 3

make v the subject of the equation

v = √(2W/m)................. Equation 4

Given: W = 3.6×10⁻⁴ J, m = 2.3×10⁻⁴ kg

Substitute into equation 4

v = √[2×3.6×10⁻⁴ )/2.3×10⁻⁴]

v = 7.2/2.3

v = 3.13 m/s

Hence the flea's speed when it leaves the ground  = 3.13 m/s

4 0
3 years ago
What velocity in km/hr would it take to accelerate a 2 kg object to the same momentum of a 1500 kg object with a velocity of 1.6
Lynna [10]

Answer:

v = 4374 Km/h

Explanation:

Given that,

Mass of the smaller object, m = 2 Kg

Mass of the bigger object, M = 1500 Kg

Velocity of the bigger object, V = 1.62 m/s

Velocity of the smaller object, v = ?

The product of its mass and velocity of a body is equal to its linear momentum. It is given by the formula

                                p = mv  Kg m/s

To find the momentum of the bigger object, substitute M and V in the above equation

                                p = 1500 Kg x 1.62 m/s

                                   = 2430 Kg m/s

The velocity imparted to the small body to attain this momentum is given by the relation

                               v = p/m  m/s

                                   = 2430 Kg m/s  /  2 Kg

                                   = 1215 m/s

By converting the velocity to Km/h

                                v = 4374 km/h

Hence, the velocity of the 2 Kg object is v = 4374 km/h

6 0
3 years ago
A small aircraft accelerated down a runway at 4.0 m/s²
Radda [10]

Given data in the problem :-

  • Acceleration (a) = 4.0 m/s^2
  • Initial velocity (u) = 0 m/s
  • Final velocity (v) = 34 m/s
  • Distance travelled by aircraft (S) =  ?

From Newton's Laws of Motion we know that ,

v = u + at  [t = Time taken by aircraft to cover the distance]

⇒ 34 = 0 + 4t

⇒ t = 34/4 s

∴  t = 8.5 s

From Newton's Laws of Motion we also know that ,

S = u.t + 1/2a.t^2

⇒ S = 0×8.5 + 1/2 × 4 × (8.5)^2 m

∴  S = 144.50 m

Thus the distance travelled by the aircraft while accelerating is 144.50 meter .

4 0
2 years ago
A loop of wire is at the edge of a region of space containing a uniform magnetic field B⃗ . The plane of the loop is perpendicul
Fantom [35]

QUESTION:

Part A

The induced emf in the loop is measured to be V. What is the magnitude B of the magnetic field that the loop was in?

Part B

For the case of a square loop of side length L being pulled out of the magnetic field with constant speed v (see the figure), what is the rate of change of area c = -\dfrac{dA}{dt}?

Answer:

Part A: B = -\dfrac{V}{c}

Part B: c=-Lv

Explanation:

Part A:

Faraday's law says that the induced voltage is equal to

V =-N \dfrac{d\Phi_B}{dt},

which in our case(because we have only one loop) becomes

V =- \dfrac{d (BA)}{dt},

and since the magnetic field is uniform (not changing),

V =-B \dfrac{dA}{dt}.

Now, we know that \dfrac{dA}{dt} =c;

therefore,

V =-B c

which gives us

\boxed{B = -\dfrac{V}{c} }

Part B:

The area of the loop can be written as

A = Lx,

where x is the instantaneous length of the side along which the loop is moving.

Taking the derivative of both sides we get:

\dfrac{dA}{dt} = -L\dfrac{dx}{dt},

and since v =\dfrac{dx}{dt} we have

c = \dfrac{dA}{dt} = -Lv

\boxed{c=-Lv}

where the negative sign indicates that the area is decreasing.

7 0
4 years ago
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