Answer:
E1 = 2996.667N/C E2 = 11237.5N/C
Explanation:
E1 = kQ1/r^2
=8.99 x 10^9 x 30 x 10^-9/(30x10^-2)^2
= 2996.667N/C
E2 = kQ2/r^2
= 8.99 x 10^9 x 50 x 10^-9/(20x10^-2)^2
= 11237.5N/C
The direction are towards the point a
Answer:
Zero
Explanation:
Two long parallel wires each carry the same current I in the same direction. The magnetic field in wire 1 is given by :

Magnetic force acting in wire 2 due to 1 is given by :


Similarly, force acting in wire 1 is given by :
According to third law of motion, the force acting in wire 1 will be in opposite direction to wire 2 as :

So, the total magnetic field at the point P midway between the wires is in what direction will be zero as the the direction of forces are in opposite direction.
Answer:
The moment of inertia is 
Explanation:
From the question we are told that
The frequency is 
The mass of the pendulum is 
The location of the pivot from the center is 
Generally the period of the simple harmonic motion is mathematically represented as

Where I is the moment of inertia about the pivot point , so making I the subject of the formula it
=> ![I = [ \frac{T}{2 \pi } ]^2 * m* g * d](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=I%20%3D%20%20%5B%20%5Cfrac%7BT%7D%7B2%20%5Cpi%20%7D%20%5D%5E2%20%2A%20%20m%2A%20%20g%20%2A%20d)
But the period of this simple harmonic motion can also be represented mathematically as

substituting values


So
![I = [ \frac{2.174}{2 * 3.142 } ]^2 * 2.40* 9.8 * 0.380](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=I%20%3D%20%20%5B%20%5Cfrac%7B2.174%7D%7B2%20%2A%203.142%20%7D%20%5D%5E2%20%2A%20%20%202.40%2A%20%209.8%20%2A%200.380)
