Answer:
Annual deposit= $26,344.36
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
The interest rate is 7 percent per year.
He wants to have enough money to provide him with $3,000 of monthly income for 30 years. To date, he has saved nothing, but he still has 20 years until he retires.
First, we need to calculate the total amount of money required:
Final value= 3,000* (30*12)= $1,080,000
Now, we can calculate the annual deposit:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual deposit
Isolating A:
A= (FV*i)/{[(1+i)^n]-1}
FV= 1,080,000
i= 0.07
n= 20
A= (1,080,000*0.07) / [(1.07^20) - 1]= $26,344.36
An efficiency ratio known as the capital intensity ratio provides valuable insight into a company's financial situation.
Capital Intensity Ratio = Total Assets/Total Revenue
Return on assets = Net income/Total Assets
Total Assets = Net income/Return on Assets= $389,100/0.086
Total Revenue = Net income/Net Profit Margin = $389,100/0.028
Capital intensity ratio = ($389,100 /0.086) / ($389,100 / 0.028) =0.33
This ratio reveals how much capital or other resources a company has to have in order to make single dollar in sales. This ratio is the inverse of the asset turnover ratio, making it simple to calculate the capital intensity ratio if you already know the asset turnover ratio. For all capital-intensive firms, we require a good or higher capital intensity ratio. A company that invests a significant amount of capital in its manufacturing process is said to be capital-intensive. E.g., Power generating facilities. A company that has made significant investments in assets to generate income has a high capital intensity ratio (CIR). A company with a low CIR is able to produce larger revenues while owning fewer assets. As a result, businesses can use this ratio to modify their capital budgeting and planning.
Learn more about Capital Intensity Ratio here
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A certain number of qualified voters in a district
Answer:
less than zero
Explanation:
According to the law of demand, an increase in price reflects in a decrease in demad. That is, price and demand are inversely proportional. Since ax is associated with the price of good X, it must be negative to accurately describe that behavior in the demand function.
Thus, ax will be: less than zero.
Answer:
Ease of entry into the market
Explanation:
A perfect competition is characterised by many buyers and sellers of homogenous goods and services.
In the long run, perfect competition make zero economic profit because if firms are making economic profits in the short run , new firms would enter into the industry in the long run. This is made possible because of the ease of entry into the market.
I hope my answer helps you
