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Yuri [45]
3 years ago
9

A collateralized mortgage obligation pays a 2% coupon rate on the first tranche plus any prepayments until its $50 million par v

alue is retired. The second and third tranches receive 4% and 5% coupon rates. The third tranche receives principal only after the second is retired. Which statement is most accurate?
a) Each tranche has the identical level of risk
b) The first tranche has the highest prepayment risk
c) The second tranche has no prepayment risk
d) The third tranche is the least risky
Business
1 answer:
Sloan [31]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The correct answer is b) The first tranche has the highest prepayment risk.

Explanation:

A collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO) is a type of security backed by mortgage. It is comprised of a pool of mortgages that are bundled together and sold as an investment. Prepayment risk is the risk of loss of interest income due to early repayment of the principal by the borrower.

In the given situation, there are three tranches. The first tranche has the highest prepayment risk because it is receiving principal at the earliest. Hence, there is more of a chance of this principal being returned early and the CMO holder losing out on potential interest. Therefore, the prepayment risk of the first tranche is the highest among all three tranches.

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Social surplus is the​ ____________. A. total value from trade in a markettotal value from trade in a market. B. difference betw
shepuryov [24]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": total value from trade in a market.

Explanation:

Canadian economist Alex Tabarrok (born in 1966) explains social surplus as the sum of consumer surplus, producer surplus, and bystanders surplus. Tabarrok takes an integrative approach in consumer surplus by stating <em>social surplus encompasses every economic trade in the market rather than only consumers and producers surplus.</em>

<em />

Besides, Tabarrok believes when there are major external costs or benefits, the market will not reach its social surplus.

4 0
3 years ago
Favorita candy's stock is expected to earn $2.40 per share this year. its p/e ratio is 18. what is the stock price?
MatroZZZ [7]
The formula to calculate p/e ratio is: price/earnings.

So, the price of the stock would be

p/e ratio = price/earnings

18 = price / 2.4

Price= 2.4 x 18

Price = 43.2 


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3 years ago
There are 2 methods of accounting for uncollectible receivables: Direct Write-Off and Allowance methods. Describe and compare th
Kruka [31]

The direct write off does not report about the bad debt and does not use the allowance where as the allowance method uses the allowance for doubtful accounts because it provides an estimate for the same.

<u>Explanation:</u>

The allowance method speaks to the accumulation and accrual basis of bookkeeping and is the acknowledged technique to record uncollectible records for monetary bookkeeping purposes. The direct write off method is utilized just when we choose a client won't pay.

The allowance method utilizes the stipend for doubtful records to catch amassed assessments of awful obligations. The direct write-off method does not report bad debt estimates; therefore, it does not use the allowance for doubtful accounts when reporting bad debts.

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