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kolezko [41]
3 years ago
15

James has a dog grooming service he charges a flat rate of $50 per month plus $100 per grooming Bradley does not charge a monthl

y fee for his dog grooming service, but he charges $35 per grooming right and solve an equation to find the number of grooming visitors W for which James and Bradley would charge the same amount
Mathematics
1 answer:
AveGali [126]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The numbers of grooming visits for which James and Bradly would charge the same amount is 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Let  the numbers of grooming visits  be x and  the charge in dollars  be y

Then according to the question :

The amount   (dollars) James charge for w visits is

y=10w+50 ------------------------------------------------(1)

The amount (dollars) James charge for w visits is

y=35w -------------------------------------------------------(2)

On equating (1) and (2)

35w = 10w+50

Grouping the like terms on the same side

35w-10w = 50

25w = 50

w = \frac{50}{25}

w = 2

 Thus for 2  grooming visits James and Bradly would charge the same amount

You might be interested in
Suppose a miniature golf player sinks a hole-in-one about 12% of the time on any given hole and is going to play 8 games at 18 h
vladimir2022 [97]

A) The probability the golfer got zero or one hole-in-one during a single game is between 10.01% and 11.38%.

B) The probability the golfer got exactly two holes-in-one during a single game is 8.57%.

C) The probability the golfer got six holes-in-one during a single game is close to 0%.

<h2 /><h2><u>How to determine probabilities</u></h2>

Since a miniature golf player sinks a hole-in-one about 12% of the time on any given hole and is going to play 8 games at 18 holes each, to determine A) what is the probability the golfer got zero or one hole -in-one during a single game, B) what is the probability the golfer got exactly two holes-in-one during a single game, and C) what is the probability the golfer got six holes-in-one during a single game , the following calculations must be performed:

  • 1 - 0.12 = 0.88
  • 0.88 ^ 17 = 0.1138
  • 0.88 ^ 18 = 0.1001

Therefore, the probability the golfer got zero or one hole-in-one during a single game is between 10.01% and 11.38%.

  • 0.88 ^ 18 - 0.12 ^ 2 = X
  • 0.0857 = X

Therefore, the probability the golfer got exactly two holes-in-one during a single game is 8.57%.

  • 0.12 ^ 6 x 0.88 ^ 12 = X
  • 0.0000000001 = X

Therefore, the probability the golfer got six holes-in-one during a single game is close to 0%.

Learn more about probabilities in brainly.com/question/25273534

3 0
3 years ago
2.10 Guessing on an exam: In a multiple choice exam, there are 6 questions and 4 choices for each question (a, b, c, d). Nancy h
ololo11 [35]

Answer:

a) p = (3/4)^5 *(1/4) =0.0593

b) P(X=6) = (6C6) (0.25)^6 (1-0.25)^{6-6}= 0.000244

c) P(X \geq 1)

And we can use the complement rule like this:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

P(X=0) = (6C0) (0.25)^0 (1-0.25)^{6-0}= 0.17798

And replacing we have:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

A Bernoulli trial is "a random experiment with exactly two possible outcomes, "success" and "failure", in which the probability of success is the same every time the experiment is conducted". And this experiment is a particular case of the binomial experiment.

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

The complement rule is a theorem that provides a connection between the probability of an event and the probability of the complement of the event. Lat A the event of interest and A' the complement. The rule is defined by: P(A)+P(A') =1

We can model the number of correct questions answered with a binomial distribution X \sim Binom(n = 6, p = 1/4=0.25)

Solution to the problem

Assuming the following questions:

a) the first question she gets right is the 6th question?  

For this case we want the first 5 questions incorrect and the last one correct, assuming independence we have:

p = (3/4)^5 *(1/4) =0.0593

(b) she gets all of the questions right?

For this case we want all the questions right so then we want this:

P(X=6) = (6C6) (0.25)^6 (1-0.25)^{6-6}= 0.000244

(c) she gets at least one question right?

For this case we want this probability:

P(X \geq 1)

And we can use the complement rule like this:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

P(X=0) = (6C0) (0.25)^0 (1-0.25)^{6-0}= 0.17798

And replacing we have:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

7 0
3 years ago
Help me please i dont understand this question..
stich3 [128]
5x6 = 30 divided in half because its a triangle
=15

2x3 = 6

15-6 = 9
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Sqrt(2x-6)=3-x<br> Solve for x
soldi70 [24.7K]

Answer:

x = 3

Step-by-step explanation:

\sqrt{2x - 6}  = 3 - x

Square both sides of the equation

2x - 6 = (3 - x)^{2} = 9 - 6x + x^{2} \\

x^{2}  - 8x + 15 = 0\\

(x - 3)(x - 5) = 0

x = 3 or 5

Now, you must always check your results because a result may not satisfy the original equation.

If x = 3, then \sqrt{2x - 6} = \sqrt{2(3) - 6} = \sqrt{6 - 6}  = \sqrt{0} = 0  and 3 - x = 3 - 3 = 0

So 3 satisfies the original.

If x = 5, then \sqrt{2(5) - 6}  = \sqrt{10 - 6} = \sqrt{4} = 2,  but 3 - x = 3 - 5 = -2.  Therefore, 5 does NOT satisfy the original equation.

That means that x = 3 is the solution to the equation.

5 0
3 years ago
This is due today, and I have no idea what I'm doing, please help if you know anything.
defon

Binomial distribution formula: P(x) = (n  k) p^k * (1 - p)^n - k

a) Probability that four parts are defective = 0.01374

P(4 defective) = (25 4) (0.04)^4 * (0.96)^21

P(4 defective) = 0.01374

b) Probability that at least one part is defective = 0.6396

Find the probability that 0 parts are defective and subtract that probability from 1.

P(0 defective) = (25 0) (0.04)^0 * (0.96)^25

P(0 defective) = 0.3604

1 - 0.3604 = 0.6396

c) Probability that 25 parts are defective = approximately 0

P(25 defective) = (25 25) (0.04)^25 * (0.96)^0

P(25 defective) = approximately 0

d) Probability that at most 1 part is defective = 0.7358

Find the probability that 0 and 1 parts are defective and add them together.

P(0 defective) = 0.3604 (from above)

P(1 defective) = (25 1) (0.04)^1 * (0.96)^24

P(1 defective) = 0.3754

P(at most 1 defective) = 0.3604 + 0.3754 = 0.7358

e) Mean = 1 | Standard Deviation = 0.9798

mean = n * p

mean = 25 * 0.04 = 1

stdev = \sqrt{np(1-p)}

stdev = \sqrt{(25)(0.04)(1-0.04)} = 0.9798

Hope this helps!! :)

7 0
3 years ago
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