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3 years ago

Please help, I honestly have no clue if it's each or none.

Mathematics

1 answer:

RideAnS [48]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

C there is no mode

Step-by-step explanation:

The mode is the number that appears most often. Since there is no number that appears more than once, there is no mode

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Please answer quickly 40 points

Elis [28]

Answer:

2/5 hour is closest to 0 1/2 hours, 5/8 hour is closest to 1/2 hour. Therefore, the best estimate for the total time Maria spent with her sister is close to 1 hour

Step-by-step explanation:

We can represent the time Maria spends playing the game as 0.4, since 2/5 as a fraction is 0.4. This is closer to 1/2, which is 0.5 then it is to 0, because 4 is closer to 5 then 0. Then, we can represent the time Maria reads the book as 0.625, which is closer to 1/2 then it is to 1. Now we can add the estimated times. $1/2+1/2=1$ hour

8 0

2 years ago

DIscrete Math

Daniel [21]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

As the statement is ‘‘if and only if’’ we need to prove two implications

$f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective implies there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ .
If there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ , then $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective

Let us start by the first implication.

Our hypothesis is that the function $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective. From this we know that for every $y\in Y$ there exist, at least, one $x\in X$ such that $y=f(x)$ .

Now, define the sets $X_y = \{x\in X: y=f(x)\}$ . Notice that the set $X_y$ is the pre-image of the element $y$ . Also, from the fact that $f$ is a function we deduce that $X_{y_1}\cap X_{y_2}=\emptyset$ , and because $f$ the sets $X_y$ are no empty.

From each set $X_y$ choose only one element $x_y$ , and notice that $f(x_y)=y$ .

So, we can define the function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ as $h(y)=x_y$ . It is no difficult to conclude that $f\circ h(y) = f(x_y)=y$ . With this we have that $f\circ h=1_Y$ , and the prove is complete.

Now, let us prove the second implication.

We have that there exists a function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h=1_Y$ .

Take an element $y\in Y$ , then $f\circ h(y)=y$ . Now, write $x=h(y)$ and notice that $x\in X$ . Also, with this we have that $f(x)=y$ .

So, for every element $y\in Y$ we have found that an element $x\in X$ (recall that $x=h(y)$ ) such that $y=f(x)$ , which is equivalent to the fact that $f$ is surjective. Therefore, the prove is complete.

3 0

3 years ago

Lily ran 1,000 meters in 12 minutes. How many meters/minute did she run?

vladimir2022 [97]

Answer:

1,000 divided by 12=

aprox 83.3 meters per minute

5 0

3 years ago

ANYONE ABLE TO HELP??? ASAP!!!!

Artemon [7]

I belive it c but i mit be wrong so dont mark it