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Norma-Jean [14]
3 years ago
6

Your portfolio has a beta of 1.75. The portfolio consists of 17 percent U.S. Treasury bills, 31 percent Stock A, and 52 percent

Stock B. Stock A has a risk level equivalent to that of the overall market. What is the beta of Stock B?
Business
2 answers:
earnstyle [38]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: 2.77

Explanation:

Portfolio Beta is the Weighted Average Beta of all the individual stocks in a portfolio.

Seeing as the other betas and proportions are given, we can plug this into a formula to find out the beta of stock B.

In case you do not see a beta for the U.S. Treasury bills that's fine because beta is a measure of risk and U.S. Treasury bills have NONE so that means that their better is 0.

And if you are wondering what the beta of stock A is, the answer is 1 because that is the beta of the overall market by definition.

Creating a formula therefore we have,

1.75 = 0.17(0) + 0.31(1) + 0.52x

0.52x = 1.75 - 0.31

0.52x = 1.44

x = 2.76923076923

x = 2.77 (2dp)

2.77 is the beta of Stock B.

disa [49]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

2.53

Explanation:

Stock A beta would be equal to 1

Portfolio beta=Respective betas*Respective weights

1.75=(0.17*0)+(0.31*1)+(0.57*beta of stock B)(Beta of Treasury bills=0)

1.75=0.31+0.57beta of stock B

Hence beta of stock B=(1.75-0.31/0.57

=2.53(Approx)

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Businesses across the country are starting to install extra insulation in their buildings and warehouses. Households are now dec
8090 [49]

Answer:

The answer is: B) Equilibrium price and quantity of oil will decrease.

Explanation:

When a company or a family installs extra insulation in their buildings or homes, then they will end up spending less money on both their electricity and heating bills. That will result in a lower demand for oil, so the price of oil will go down. As oil prices go down, the oil companies will decrease the oil supply until a new equilibrium point is reached.

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3 years ago
The manufacturing overhead account is debited when ______.
Rufina [12.5K]

Production process involves different type of cost and expenses, manufacturing overhead account is one and it is debited when overhead applied is less than the actual overhead costs incurred.

<h3>What is manufacturing overhead cost?</h3>

It is the sum of all the indirect costs that were spent while manufacturing a product.

The amount in the manufacturing overhead account can either be a debit or credit.

It is a debit when the overhead is less than the actual overhead costs that were spent.

Therefore, The manufacturing overhead account is debited when the overhead applied is less than the actual overhead costs incurred.

Learn more manufacturing overhead accounts here

brainly.com/question/15739613

5 0
2 years ago
Assume that you are a high-level manager for a shoe manufacturer. You know that your firm could increase its profit margin by pr
Vesnalui [34]

Answer:

The issue here is that you need to balance your company's profits and possible negative due to bad press.

On one side (the good and righteous side), if you do not produce shoes in Asia, your long term survival economic is doubtful, but people view your company as a company that does the right thing no matter what. Will it increase sales? Theoretically it should, but in practice it doesn't. Are Nike sales hurt because each shoe is produced in an Asian country that pays $0.25 per day? No, they aren't. The same applies to Reebok, Adidas, Puma, New Balance and every single major shoe manufacturer in the world. Bad press hurt tuna back in the 80's, but some companies are not affected by it.

The alternative (the evil, dark side of the force side) results in your company being able to survive on the long term. It will not necessarily mean that your company will grow and become the world's largest shoe manufacturer, but you will be able to survive and continue to operate.

There is also a trick that you can use to avoid reputational damage and bad press, and that is to establish a foreign subsidiary in Indonesia using a different name. Then your foreign subsidiary sells you the manufactured goods, and the blame fall son the subsidiary. Believe it or not, that simple solution is used by most corporations including clothing manufacturers, electronics, toys, etc.

If you analyze this from an ethical point of view, the alternative is much simpler. Producing in Indonesia (or India, or Burma, or Pakistan, or Vietnam, etc.) and paying a $100 salary will allow a family to live a very decent life and probably even prosper. They will have a much better lifestyle than the rest of their neighborhood. Each Indonesian worker represents one less poor family in Indonesia. On the other hand, American families will probably get hurt, but it is also much easier for an American worker to get another job that pays a normal wage (in US standards) and allows them to live well.

6 0
2 years ago
Explain. Brainliest.
Rus_ich [418]
Alright, well look like this:

Public goods are goods that are open to anyone. They can’t turn down customers, and they can’t turn down even people who don’t pay.

Excludable goods means the people CAN turn away those who don’t pay. So, this is wrong.

Goods for a profit means that no matter what, they make money. Meaning those who can’t pay can still be turned away.

Privately owned goods can be turned away to and from anyone. This is also wrong.

Nonexcludable goods means that ANYONE can use this good or service, they aren’t for profit, they are non-rivalrous, etc. This is your answer.

<span>~Hope this helps!</span>

7 0
3 years ago
Ok so i have a ton of questions i need answered for this test im taking. its on economics. anyone think they can help? thank you
satela [25.4K]
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</span>
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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