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Nezavi [6.7K]
3 years ago
12

The expected return on a riskless asset is greater than zero due to A. an expected return for delaying consumption. B. irrationa

l investors who believe risk is always present. C. an expected return for opportunity costs. D. an expected return for taxes.
Business
1 answer:
Sophie [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

A. an expected return for delaying consumption.

Explanation:

When investors has option of a riskless asset, it is assumed that demand for it will be high. So investors rush to take advantage of the opportunity, leading to returns.

For example when one puts his money in the bank, this is considered a riskless asset. He will expect returns for not using his funds immediately ( delayed consumption)

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A lack of the resources needed to go into producing goods and services is called what
kotykmax [81]
Goods service resources
8 0
3 years ago
Charleston, Inc. has Accounts Receivable of $170,000 and an Allowance for Doubtful Accounts of $11,000. If it writes-off a custo
Romashka [77]

Answer:

$159,000

Explanation:

The double entry to record the writes off balances which are the bad debts of Customers who will not pay the debt, will include debit to allowance which is decrease in the allowance and credit to accounts receivable which is also a decrease to accounts receivable:

Dr Allowance for doubtful account $1,100

Cr Accounts Receivable                           $1,100

Similarly the increase in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts of $11,000 will be treated totally opposite of the decrease in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts above:

Dr Accounts Receivable               $11,000

Cr Allowance for doubtful account    $11,000

Now, the increase in allowance is deducted from opening accounts receivables and vice versa. The treatment is given below:

Opening balance of Accounts receivables             $170,000

Accounts Receivable                                                ($1,100)

Allowance for Doubtful Debt    ($11,000 - $1,100)   <u>   $9,900 </u>

Accounts Receivable (Net)                                       $159,000

5 0
3 years ago
Classify the following items as (1) prepaid expense, (2) unearned revenue, (3) accrued revenue, or (4) accrued expense: a. Cash
slava [35]

Answer:

a. Unearned Revenue; b. Accrued Revenue; c. Accrued Expense; d. Prepaid Expense

Explanation:

Prepaid Expenses : Expenses paid before due

Unearned Revenue : Revenue earned before due i.e Advance Income

Accrued Revenue : Revenue earned i.e due , but not received

Accrued Expense : Expense due but not paid i.e Outstanding Expense

a. Cash received for use of land next month = Unearned Revenue or Advance Income

b. Fees earned but not received in cash = Accrued Revenue / Accrued Income

c. Wages owed but not yet paid = Accrued Expense / Outstanding Expense

d. Supplies on Hand = Prepaid Expense

3 0
3 years ago
The Allowance for Bad Debts account has a debit balance of $ 9 comma 000$9,000 before the adjusting entry for bad debts expense.
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

the amount of the adjustment in the Allowance for

Bad Debts​ account  $3.000

Explanation:

Initial Balance  

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 9.000

END Balance  

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 12.000

The adjustment entry in the accountig will be

Bad debt expense  $ 3.000  

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts   $ 3.000

3 0
4 years ago
2. The following table provides information about the production possibilities frontier of a Country.(4)
iren [92.7K]

Based on the PPF of the country, if the country were to produce an additional 20 computers at that level, the opportunity cost would be 40 kg of wheat.

If a technological advancement allows for computers to be produced more efficiently, the PPF would expand outwards as shown in the attachment.

<h3>What would be the opportunity cost?</h3>

At the point where this country can produce 10 computers, the amount of wheat it can produce is 400 kg wheat.

If it produces 20 more computers, it will move to the point where it can produce 30 computers and 360 kg of wheat. Opportunity cost would be:

= 400 - 360

= 40 kg wheat.

<h3>What happens due to a technological advancement?</h3>

When there is an improvement in technology, the production capacity of a nation increases. This leads to the production possibilities frontier expanding outward.

Find out more on the production possibilities frontier at brainly.com/question/26685094.

3 0
2 years ago
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