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Ray Of Light [21]
4 years ago
12

A certain large manufacturing facility produces 20,000 parts each week. The manager of the facility estimates that about 1% of t

he parts they make are defective. What is the variance for the number of defective parts made each week
Mathematics
1 answer:
Slav-nsk [51]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

198 is the variance for the number of defective parts made each week.      

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the following in the question:

Number of parts produced each week =  20,000

Percentage of defective parts = 1%

We have to calculate the variance for the number of defective parts made each week.

We treat defective part as a success.

P(Defective part) = 1% = 0.01

p = 0.01

Then the number defective parts follows a binomial distribution .

Formula for variance =

\sigma^2 = np(1-p) = 20000(0.01)(1-0.01) = 198

Thus, 198 is the variance for the number of defective parts made each week.

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belka [17]

Answer:

\therefore 2\dfrac{1}{3}  \div \left ( -3\dfrac{2}{3} \right ) = -\dfrac{7}{11}

Step-by-step explanation:

The question relates to dividing a fraction by proper and another fraction

The given expression is presented as follows;

2\dfrac{1}{3}  \div \left ( -3\dfrac{2}{3} \right )

We rearrange the fractions as improper  fractions for easier division as follows;

2\dfrac{1}{3}  = \dfrac{7}{3}

-3\dfrac{2}{3} = -\dfrac{11}{3}

Therefore, we have;

2\dfrac{1}{3}  \div \left ( -3\dfrac{2}{3} \right ) = \dfrac{7}{3} \div \left (-\dfrac{11}{3} \right ) = \dfrac{7}{3} \times \left (\dfrac{1}{-\dfrac{11}{3} } \right ) = \dfrac{7}{3} \div \left (-\dfrac{3}{11} \right ) =-\dfrac{7}{11}

\therefore 2\dfrac{1}{3}  \div \left ( -3\dfrac{2}{3} \right ) = -\dfrac{7}{11}

4 0
3 years ago
Drag each tile to the correct location on the table. Each tile can be used more than once, but not all tiles will be used. Lewis
son4ous [18]

The fill up for the 3rd  step is y - 250 =  340x.

  • The fill up of the 5th step is x = \frac{y-250}{340}
  • The fill up of the 6th step  is \frac{8750-250}{340} = 25 = x, \frac{8750-250}{340}= 34 = x
  • The justification for the 2nd step is subtraction PE.
  • The justification for the 4th step is division PE.

<h3>What is the simplification  about?</h3>

Note that:

y-250 = 250 + 340 x - 250

y = 250 + 340x.

Make x the subject of the formula:

y - 250 =  340x.

then y-250/340 = x

Then  x = \frac{y-250}{340}

The justification for the second step is subtraction property of equality because it undergoes subtraction and the collection of like terms and then subtracting them from one another as shown below:

y-250 = 250 + 340 x - 250

y= 250 + 340x - 250 + 250

Note that (-250 + 250) = 0

y = 250 + 340x.

Lastly, The fill up of the 6th step is substitution of the amount of money  saved and  then simplifying it.

Learn more about simplification from

brainly.com/question/723406

#SPJ1

8 0
2 years ago
The next model of a sports car will cost 5.6% less than the current model. The current model costs $52,000. How much will the pr
Lostsunrise [7]

Answer:

49,088

Step-by-step explanation:

First you need to find 5.6% of 52,000. Simply multiply 52,000 by 0.056 (change the percent to a decimal) then you get 2,912.

Second, you need to subtract 2,912 from 52,000 which is 49,088

8 0
3 years ago
Yolanda is planning out her square vegetable garden. One side 7 feet. How
Elan Coil [88]
Well if it’s a square all sides are equal, so all sides are 7ft.

Perimeter=
7+7+7+7=28ft
Or
7•4=28

Hope this helps!!!
3 0
3 years ago
on the first day of the year, you have $700 in your bank account. you spend $35 per week. your friend starts the year with $450
____ [38]
5weeks
<span>Good! Since you want to find when both of you have the same amount of money, you can set the two expressions representing the money equal to each other. This gives the equation $700 – $35 per week • weeks = $450 + $15 per week • weeks. Solving the equation, you find that you will have the same amount of money in 5 weeks.</span>
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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