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saw5 [17]
3 years ago
5

Why is MA always less than VR?​

Physics
1 answer:
jarptica [38.1K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

\boxed{ \bold{ \boxed{ \sf{see \: below}}}}

Explanation:

MA ( Mechanical Advantage ) is always less than VR ( Velocity Ratio ) because <u>MA</u><u> </u><u>is</u><u> </u><u>reduced</u><u> </u><u>by</u><u> </u><u>friction</u><u> </u><u>but</u><u> </u><u>VR</u><u> </u><u>is</u><u> </u><u>not</u><u> </u><u>affected</u><u> </u><u>by</u><u> </u><u>friction</u><u>.</u>

Hope I helped!

Best regards! :D

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Two magnets are placed near each other on a space station orbiting Earth.
dimulka [17.4K]

Answer: A. They will be repelled because they are in each other's magnetic

field.

Explanation: Apex and gravity and electrical don't have effect on magnets magnetic field.

5 0
3 years ago
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a fast humvee drove from desert a to desert b. for the 12 hours, it travelled at an speed of 185 km/h. for the next 13 hours, it
ivanzaharov [21]

Answer:

I am not sure of the question?

Explanation:

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8 0
3 years ago
Given: G = 6.672 × 10−11 N · m2 /kg2 Io, a satellite of Jupiter, has an orbital period of 1.24 days and an orbital radius of 4.1
Dahasolnce [82]

Answer:

Mass of Jupiter = 4.173×10^15kg

Explanation:

Using Kepler's 3rd law, it states that the orbital period T is related to the distance,r as:

T^2 = GM/4 pi × r^3

Where G = universal gravitational constant

r = radius

M = masd of jupiter

Rearranging the formular to make M the subject of formular

T^2 × 4 pi = G M × r^3

(T^2 × 4 pi) / (G× r^3) = M

(1.24^2 × 4 × 3.142) /(6.672×10^-11)(4.11×10^8)^3

M = 19.32 /6.672×10^-11)(4.11×10^8)^3

M = 19.32 / 4.63 ×10^15

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6 0
3 years ago
Over a span of 6.0 seconds, a car changes it's speed from 89 km/h to 37 km/h. What is its average acceleration in meters per sec
scoundrel [369]

Acceleration = (change in speed) / (time for the change)

change in speed = (speed at the end) - (speed at the beginning)

change in speed = (37 km/hr) - (89 km/hr) = -52 km/hr

Acceleration = (-52 km/hr) / (6 sec)

Acceleration = (-26/3) km/(hr·sec)

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= -26,000/(3 · 3600) m/s²

<em>Acceleration = -2.41 m/s²</em>

3 0
3 years ago
A wave is traveling through a medium. As it travels, it displaces particles of matter in the same direction as the wave is trave
Alexxandr [17]

<u>Answer</u>

longitudinal wave because the particles move parallel to the direction that the wave is traveling.


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Transverse wave is a wave whose vibration of particles is perpendicular to the direction of wave travel.

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