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Alborosie
3 years ago
6

Which of the following electromagnets is the strongest? Why?​

Physics
1 answer:
Digiron [165]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Bitter Magnet inside a superconducting magnet

Explanation:

Since there are no options available, generally, the electromagnet that is considered the strongest is the Bitter Magnet inside a superconducting magnet.

This electromagnet produces 45 Tesla units which is a result of bitter magnet producing 33.5 Tesla and the superconducting coil produces the additional 11.5 Tesla.

Hence, justifying that the greater the current in the coil the stronger the electromagnet. ​

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Why did earth most likely form into distinct, separate layers? (HELP ASAP PLZ)
g100num [7]

Answer:

C

Explanation:

Rocks with hotter temperatures sank to the bottom of the Earth. The rocks with the hottest temperature became the core and the rocks with the least amount of heat became the crust.

Hope this helps!

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A 3-m-high, 7-m-wide rectangular gate is hinged at the top edge and is restrained by a fixed ridge. Determine the hydrostatic fo
Shalnov [3]

Answer:

The Hydrostatic force is   F  =  137.2 kN

The location of pressure center is  Z  = 1.333 \ m  

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The height of the gate is  h =  3 \ m

     The weight of the gate is  w =  7 \  m

      The height of the water is  h_w  =  2 \ m

       The density of water is \rho_w  =  1000 \ kg/m^3

Note used h_w for height of water and height of gate immersed by water since both have the same value

The area of the gate immersed in water  is mathematically represented as

         A =  h_w  * w

substituting values

         A =  2*  7

         A =  14  \ m^2

The hydrostatic force is mathematically represented as

          F  =  \rho_w * g * h_f * A

Where

            h_f =h-  h_w

           h_f =3 -2

           h_f = 1\ m  

So  

              F  =  1000 * 9.8 * 1 * 14

            F  =  137.2 kN

The center of pressure is mathematically represented as

        Z  =  h_f + \frac{I_g}{h_f * A}

Where I_g is the moment of inertia of the gate which mathematically represented as

            I_g =  \frac{w * h_w^2}{12}

The h_w is the height of gate immersed in water

            I_g =  \frac{7  * 2^2 }{12}

             I_g = 4.667\ kg  m^2

Thus  

        Z  = 1  + \frac{4.66}{1 * 14}

        Z  = 1.333 \ m

3 0
3 years ago
1) What do (x) and (y) symbolize?
MArishka [77]

Answer:

x is vertical and y is horizontal

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Two airplanes leave an airport at the same time. The velocity of the first airplane is 730 m/h at a heading of 65.3 ◦ . The velo
yanalaym [24]

Answer:

Plane will 741.6959 m apart after 1.7 hour                    

Explanation:

We have given time = 1.7 hr

So if we draw the vectors of a 2d graph we see that the difference in angles is   = 102^{\circ}-65.3^{\circ}=36.7^{\circ}

Speed of first plane  = 730 m/h

So distance traveled by first plane = 730×1.7 = 1241 m

Speed of second plane = 590 m/hr

So distance traveled by second plane = 590×1.7 = 1003 m

We represent these distances as two sides of the triangle, and the distance between the planes as the side opposing the angle 58.6.

Using the law of cosine, r^2 representing the distance between the planes, we see that:

r^2=1241^2+1003^2-2\times 1003\times 1241cos(36.7)=550112.8295

r = 741.6959 m

3 0
3 years ago
create a formula giving the strength of the induced field (B) i terms of current (I) and the distance from the wire to the probe
iren [92.7K]
So we need to find the formula for magnetic field B using the current (I) and the distance from the probe (d). So, We know that the stronger the current I, the stronger the magnetic field B. That tells us that the I and B are proportional. Also we know that the strength of the magnetic field B is weaker as the distance d of the probe increases. That tells us that B and d are inversely proportional. So our formula should have B=(I/d)*c where c is a constant of proportionality. c=μ₀/2π where μ₀ is the permeability of free space. So finally our formula is B=(μ₀I)/(2πd). 
6 0
3 years ago
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