Answer:
a. investment risk
Explanation:
Risk is the potential of an action or activity (including the option not to move) to cause an undesired loss or event. The idea implies that a choice affects the outcome. The same potential losses can be called "risk".
Investment risk: We can define it as the inappropriateness between the actual and expected returns. Because on this type of risk, there may be occurrence of any losses with some probability or likelihood which will be relative the expected return.
Asset class is about the grouping process of investments which have some mutual or similar characteristics. The risk on this case is something has relative elasticity compared to another investment in the market. Usually, there is 3 groups of asset classes: equities, bonds and money market instruments.
The market risk which is called sometimes as systematic risk. This risk consider the entire market and has effects on this scale. The investor who undertook this risk will see that the factors which affect the overall performance of the whole marketplace.
Opportunity cost is the cost when you have purchased, chose or bought the product compared to another product. However, you will notice that if you buy another one you will get more value or consumer surplus but you have just bought and you missed chance. This is the opportunity cost
Answer:
B
Explanation:
A is valid but i would be more worried about B when editing C and D say to fix something but it never says anything is wrong so the wording makes those answers wrong/very highly unlikely
<span>The wealthiest nations of Southeast Asia, excluding Singapore (which is one of the wealthiest countries in the world) are Thailand and Malaysia, with Malaysia being in the 130th position according to GNI (Gross national Income) and Thailand in the 120th position (the higher the number the bigger the GNI). After this it's Indonesia in the 72nd place. </span>
Answer:
$355 unfavorable
Explanation:
Budgeted supplies cost was [$1,860 + (635 frames x $ 11)] = ($1,860 + $6,985) = $8,845
Actual supplies cost was $9,200, so the variance was = budgeted cost - actual cost = $8,845 - $9,200 = $355 unfavorable
Since the actual supplies cost was higher than the budgeted supplies cost, then the variance must be unfavorable (because more money was spent than expected).