<span>False.
Experimental probability is based on doing trials.</span>
Answer:
86
Step-by-step explanation:
i dont really kbow why but i think it 86
The answer is 95.4525 percent because you would use an equation
n!/(r!(n-r)! x (P)^x * (1-P)^(n-x)
Plug in the number correspondingly
N= 10
R= 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6 (You will have to do each individual, if you have a Ti-nspire calculator however there is a built program called binomialcdf.
P= .37
x = r
After plugging this is the achieved answer is 95.4525
(.0578 + .1529 + .2394 + .2461 + .1734 + .0849) x 100
additive may be a little off due to rounding.
17.94
Because 15% of $6 is .9 so
2.6x6.9=17.94
Answer:
y=0.5x+3
Step-by-step explanation:
