$1.60.
You do 100 divided by 625 to get 16 cents. You then multiply .16 times 10 to get $1.60
The answer is a.) -27
subtract 11 from 38
27 keeps the negative sign because -38 is larger than 11
Answer:
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Explanation:
Simulate (build a table) the growing of the number of pennies for some nights to figure out the pattern:
First night: 1 penny = 2⁰
Second night: 1 × 2 pennies = 2¹
Third night: 2 × 2 = 2²
Fourth nigth: 2² × 2 = 2³
nth night: 2ⁿ⁻¹
You want 2ⁿ⁻¹ ≥ 2,000,000,000
Which you solve in this way:
- n-1 log (2) ≥ log (2,000,000,000)
- n - 1 ≥ log (2,000,000,000) / log (2)
Since n is number of days, it is an integer number, so n ≥ 32.
Hence, she will have a total of more than $ 2 billion after 32 days.
You can prove that by calculating 2³² = 2,147,483,648.
Are you sure you didn’t miss anything while writing the question?
Cause we have nothing to go off. Everybody types differently so there is no way for us to say how long he typed for, unless we were given aprox how many words he wrote in a minute or something
Step-by-step explanation:
3. The length of the rectangle is 3x and width is x+5
Now,
Area of rectangle=l×b
=3x(x+5)
=3x^2+15x(option d.)
4. 2/3x-4=20
2x/3=20+4
2x/3=24
2x=24×3
2x=72
x=72/2
x=36(option d.)
