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3 years ago

The tree diagram below shows all of the possible outcomes for flipping three coins.

Mathematics

2 answers:

creativ13 [48]3 years ago

8 0

The probability that two of the coins will be tails is 1/2

It is 1/2 because "at least two tails" means that two tails and the rest of the number of tails, which is 3. In total the three coins have 6 sides. The chance of having two tails and one is three out of 6, simplified is 1/2 ;)

Ghella [55]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Option C is correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

From given tree Diagram.

Total No of Outcome = 8

Let E be the event in which atleast 2 coins shoes tails.

Favorable outcome = { (H,T,T) , (T,H,T) , (T,T,H) , (T,T,T) }

⇒ No. of favorable outcome = 4

$Probability\:of\:event\:E=\frac{No\:of\:favorable\:outcome}{Total\:no\:of\:outcome}$

$P(E)=\frac{4}{8}=\frac{1}{2}$

Therefore, Option C is correct.

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In the problem below, AB, CD, and EF are two-digit numbers, where A, B, C, D, E and F represent distinct digits from 1 to 9. Is

Oksi-84 [34.3K]

Answer:

<em>When both the conditions hold true, F is prime.</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

AB, CD, and EF are two-digit numbers, where A, B, C, D, E and F represent distinct digits from 1 to 9.

+ CD

--------

1st condition, B and D are consecutive.

Adding B and D gives us F.

Possible values can be (F being the unit value after adding not considering the carry over):

B + D = F

1+2=3

2+3=5

3+4=7

4+5=9

5+6=1

6+7=3

7+8=5

8+9=7

Here F is not prime (because 9 is not prime).

Now, let us consider the 2nd condition as well.

i.e. C = 8

For the following

+ CD

--------

C is 8 then A must be 1 because any value other than 1 for A will make the sum of A and C greater than 9 and there will be a carry which is not the case here.

So, E = 8 + 1 = 9

Now, B and D are consecutive and can not be 1, 8 or 9.

So, possible values are:

B + D = F

2 + 3 = 5

3 + 4 = 7

Here F is prime.

So, when both the conditions hold true, F is prime.

3 0

3 years ago

Pls help with stats

aleksklad [387]

Answers:

Exactly 25%
median = 450
Not enough info (see below)
IQR = 24
IQR = 192

=========================================================

Explanations:

By definition, the quartiles split the data into four equal parts. The first quartile (Q1) will have 25% of the data below it.
The second quartile is the exact same value as the median. This is because the median splits the data into two equal halves, i.e. is at the midpoint.
There's not enough info. We can determine that 25% of the company makes more than $60,000, but we don't know how many people total work at the company. This info is missing.
Subtract the third and first quartiles (Q3 and Q1) to get the interquartile range (IQR). So IQR = Q3 - Q1 = 45-21 = 24
Same idea as the previous problem. IQR = Q3 - Q1 = 316.5 - 124.5 = 192

3 0

2 years ago

Simplify 38 over 49 what’s the anwswer

Katyanochek1 [597]

Answer: 38 over 49 can be written as 38/49. When divided, you will get 0.77551020408. It takes lots of regrouping, but it ends eventually.

If you are reducing it as a fraction, it is not possible because there is no other number to reduce it, so it will be in it's simplest form already.

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

First person that gave me the correct answer will get brainliest

Rainbow [258]

Answer:

Answer A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer A is correct. Sides 3.6 and 3 form one ratio and sides 5.4 and 4.5 form another ratio of the lengths of corresponding sides.

5 0

3 years ago

Multiply: -

Molodets [167]

Answer:

It should be -4/7

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope i helped. And If you can, can you help me by subing to my YT. It’s called Not Claz and it is the same profile pick I have on Brainly.

8 0

3 years ago