3 years ago

Why is it 1/6, plz explain

Mathematics

1 answer:

Mkey [24]3 years ago

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On that chart on the top right does it only include population?

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ANSWER

$( {36})^{ (- \frac{1}{2}) } = \frac{1}{6}$

EXPLANATION

The given expression is

${36}^{( - \frac{1}{2} )}$
This is having a negative index. We must first of all change to a positive index.

Recall that,

${a}^{ - m} = \frac{1}{ {a}^{m} }$

We apply this law of exponents to get,

${36}^{( - \frac{1}{2} )} = \frac{1}{ {36}^{( \frac{1}{2} )} }$

We cab rewrite the given expression to obtain;

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${36}^{( - \frac{1}{2} )} = \frac{1}{ 6 }$

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