Answer: 4.44 %
Step-by-step explanation:
Let A is the event that machine a will break down,
A' is the event that machine a will not break down,
B is the event that machine b will break down,
And, B' is the event that machine will not break down.
According to the question,
P(A) = 2%
⇒ P(A) = 0.02
P(A') = 1 - 0.02 = 0.98
Similarly, P(B) = 0.025
⇒ P(B') = 1 - 0.025 = 0.975
Thus, the probability that exactly one machine will break down on a given day = P(A) × P(B') + P(A') × P(B)
= 0.02 × 0.975 + 0.98 × 0.025
= 0.044
= 4.44 %
Answer:
42
Step-by-step explanation:
8(5)+2=42
Answer:
i cant see the pic
Step-by-step explanation:
So i would make this into a proportion, 29/30= 150.80/x
now we cross multiply, 29x= 4524, then we divide 156 is the price at store b. so the second portion we do 156- 150.80= 5.20, we save $5.20
:)
10/(20-15)=2 hours
20*2=40 miles
15*2+10=40 miles
Glen catch up with Maria after 2 hours at 40 miles