Everyone in the organization has a stake in how information is processed and managed.

The process of asset transformation refers to the conversion of:_______

kondaur [170]

Answer: c. Risky assets into safer assets

Explanation:

The process of asset transformation refers to the conversion of risky assets into safer assets. Asset transformationa is simply a form of transformation in which financial institutions like banks use deposits in the generation of revenue through the pooling deposits in order to make loans. It has to do with transforming bank liabilities into bank assets.

6 0

3 years ago

Marc, a single taxpayer, earns $60,000 in taxable income and $5,000 in

lesya692 [45]

Answer:

Federal tax = $10,856.25

Explanation:

Given:

Tax rate schedule for year 2014.

Income between $36,900 - $89,350

$5,081.25 + 25% over $36,900

Total income = $60,000

Computation:

So,Income between $36,900 - $89,350

Federal tax = $5,081.25 + 25% ($60,000 - $36,900)

Federal tax = $5,081.25 + 25% ($23,100)

Federal tax = $5,081.25 + 0.25 ($23,100)

Federal tax = $5,081.25 + $5,775

Federal tax = $10,856.25

4 0

3 years ago

In his report, Wade described the strengths and weaknesses of each of his subordinates. He made a note of their past performanc

elixir [45]

Answer:

Written essay

Explanation:

Written essay method is an approach of performance appraisal, where appraiser prepare a written statement about the strength and weekness of employee to appraise their performance, these strength and weekness are evaluated on the basis of past performance at the employment. It also suggest solution for performance improvement. It is one of the effective method of performance appraisal, however, it is time consuming.

In the given case, Wade have described strength and weekness of each subordinates and also suggested technique to improve performance, therefore, wade is using Written essay method of performance appraisal.

6 0

3 years ago

9. Study Question #9 Ch 7. Evaluate the following statement describing the strategy that East Asia used from the 1970s to the 19

horsena [70]

Answer:

East Asia's accomplishment in accomplishing a high development rate is a miracle.The example of overcoming adversity centers around outside trade,savings of government and above all in teaching young men and young ladies so that by accomplishing high education level they can accomplish high financial growth.East Asia likewise have a high PPP(Purchasing Power Parity)which helped them to accomplish high growth.Countries like China and Japan are putting more in colleges.

Fare - situated methodology assumes a significant job being developed of East Asia.Many nations like Japan,Taiwan,China moved to send out polocies to cultivate high econmic growth.Of course,open exchange will be a significant development driven motor and the creating nations will considered it as a most significant weapon in accomplishing growth.Thus,industrialisation is a significant rebound for East Asia to accomplish high financial development.

Therefore,industralisation,openness to trade,educational accomplishment and import-send out approaches helped East Asia to accomplish high econmic development.

(b)We know the idea of 'theory of unavoidable losses or Total Factor Productivity.It states that at one point including one extra factor of creation brings about a lessening increment in output.For example,if we utilize laborers to fabricate an item then at a specific level the creation is steady and by utilizing more,the yield decreases.So we can say that the given articulation is valid.

TFP is a significant factor for high development rate.East Asian nations have accomplished a high growth.Most of this is from factor accumulation.East Asia TFP can't and along these lines the nations lost their normal development achievement.High monetary development brings about low TFP.

8 0

4 years ago

Cody Jenkins and Lacey Tanner formed a partnership to provide landscaping services. Jenkins and Tanner shared profits and losses

Artyom0805 [142]

Answer:

A) 10,200

Explanation:

Capital balance of both partners :

Cody Jenkins = $39,000

Lacey Tanner = $51,000

Existing capital =. $(39,000 + 51,000) = $90,000

New purchase price - Solano = $24,000

Total capital = $(90,000 + 24000) = $114,000

New capital :

New partner share × total capital

New partner capital = 30 % × 114000 = $34,200

Amount of partner bonus = new purchase price - new partner capital

Amount of partner bonus = 24,000 - 34,200 = - $10,200

Bonus share ratio:

Cody Jenkins and Lacey Tanner share profit and losses equally :

Cody Jenkins and Lacey Tanner :

0.5 × 10,200 = -$5,100

B)

Account. - - - - - - - - - - - - - Debit - - - - - Credit

Cash - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 24,000

Capital: valerio Solano - - - - - - - - - - - 34,200

Capital: Cody Jenkins - - - 5,100

Capital: Lacey Tanner - - - 5,100

Total - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 34,200 - - - 34,200

C.)

The purchase price is less than the book value of the 30% percentage of the partnership purchase, valerio Solano purchase price was $24,000 but he was allocated 30% of total capital which is $34,200

4 0

3 years ago