Answer:
From the end of the Middle Ages to the first centuries of the Modern Era, some new investment strategies were developed, which contributed greatly to the development of capitalism.
Explanation:
In particular, group investment in companies that did not have a single, personal owner. This is what we know today as corporations.
The main advantage of a corporation is that many investors pour their money, something that raises the amount of capital, while at the same time not holding full personal responsability over their investments in case the corporation fails. In other words, investors do not have to pay with their personal wealth in case of corporate failure.
Two important early corporations are the Dutch East India Company, and the British East Indian Company. They were very important for the development of capitalism.
Answer:
the exchange rate and the trade deficit to decrease.
Explanation:
A deficit can be defined as an amount by which money, falls short of its expected or required value.
Generally, deficit in financial accounting is usually as a result of expense exceeding revenue or revenue falling below expenses at a specific period of time.
For instance, when liabilities exceeds assets or import exceeds export there would be a deficit in the financial account.
Generally, a deficit on the current account ultimately implies that the value of goods and services exported is lower than the value of goods and services being imported in a particular country.
In 2013, government began with a budget deficit and a trade deficit. During the year, the government changed its policy and is now running a budget surplus.
Hence, this change in policy will cause the exchange rate and the trade deficit to decrease if all other factors hold constant
Answer:
d
Explanation:
by looking at the prices ,answer d is my estimated answer,im not a finance intern
Answer:
0,087792106 = rate
Explanation:
We need to calculate the interest of the investment
principal x (1 + rate)^time = value
replacing with the know values
24,000 x (1+rate)^2 = 28,399
28,399/24,000 = (1 + rate)^2
sqrt (28,399/24,000) -1 = rate
now we solve for the unknown value
0,087792106 = rate
Answer:
Sell interest-earning assets in order to obtain non-interest-bearing money
Explanation:
The liquidity preference theory states that investors prefer cash or highly liquid assets to long term assets that carry high risk.
When investors obtain long term assets the charge higher interest rates or premium in order to mitigate associated risk.
In this scenario when the supply of money is higher than demand, there is abundance of non interest bearing money that is highly liquid.
According to the liquidity preference theory investors will sell their interest bearing assets and go for assets with high liquidity (non Interest bearing money)
