10 15 20 25 30....etc hope this helps you!!
<span>Tan(x) = sin(x) / cos(x). Therefore, tan(x) pi/2 = 1/0, which doesn't exist. Imagine that, instead of 0, it's a number incredibly close to 0. The smaller the number in the denominator, the bigger the outcome. Therefore, we can think of 1/0 as infinity, or approaching infinity as one gets closer to 1/0. This is the same result approaching from the negative side, only it's negative infinity. If x=0, it's 0/1 instead (sin 0=0, cos 0=1). Anything divided by 1 is itself, so as x approaches 0, so does f(x).</span>
Y=1/x solve for x
x=1/y now reverse lables...
y=1/x
Yes that is the same equation you started with. What that means is the the inverse function in this case produces the same exact graph :)
Answer:
AC ≅ AE
Step-by-step explanation:
According to the SAS congruence theorem, if two triangles have 2 corresponding sides that are equal, and also have one included corresponding angle that are equal to each other in both triangles, both triangles are regarded as congruent.
Given ∆ABC and ∆ADC in the question above, we are told that segment AB ≅ AD, and also <BAC ≅ <DAC, the additional information that is necessary to prove that ∆ABC and ∆ADC are congruent, according to the SAS theorem, is segment AC ≅ segment AE.
This will satisfy the requirements of the SAS theorem for considering 2 triangles to be equal or congruent.
