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Airida [17]
3 years ago
7

What is the answer to 6(1+8n)=-39+3n

Mathematics
1 answer:
MissTica3 years ago
5 0

For this case we must simplify the following expression:

6 (1 + 8n) = - 39 + 3n

We apply distributive property on the left side of the equation:

6 * 1 + 6 * 8n = -39 + 3n\\6 + 48n = -39 + 3n

We subtract 3n from both sides of the equation:

6 + 48n-3n = -39\\6 + 45n = -39

We subtract 6 from both sides of the equation:

45n = -39-6\\45n = -45

We divide between 45 on both sides of the equation:

n = \frac {-45} {45}\\n = -1

Answer:

n = -1

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3 years ago
The centers for disease control and prevention reported that 25% of baby boys 6-8 months old in the united states weigh more tha
melisa1 [442]

Answer:

0.1971 ( approx )

Step-by-step explanation:

Let X represents the event of weighing more than 20 pounds,

Since, the binomial distribution formula is,

P(x)=^nC_r p^r q^{n-r}

Where, ^nC_r=\frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}

Given,

The probability of weighing more than 20 pounds, p = 25% = 0.25,

⇒ The probability of not weighing more than 20 pounds, q = 1-p = 0.75

Total number of samples, n = 16,

Hence, the probability that fewer than 3 weigh more than 20 pounds,

P(X

=^{16}C_0 (0.25)^0 (0.75)^{16-0}+^{16}C_1 (0.25)^1 (0.75)^{16-1}+^{16}C_2 (0.25)^2 (0.75)^{16-2}

=(0.75)^{16}+16(0.25)(0.75)^{15}+120(0.25)^2(0.75)^{14}

=0.1971110499

\approx 0.1971

3 0
3 years ago
I will mark you brainiest if you can answer this, please help
Marina86 [1]

Answer:

Divide

Step-by-step explanation:

Divide everything on both sides of the equal sign by the coefficient to get rid of it. This only works in this example.

Please Brainliest

Happy Holidays

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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