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OLEGan [10]
3 years ago
5

Barbara needs to add more staff in order to complete her project on time. Which pathway would best aid Barbara in finding qualif

ied workers?
Business Analysis
Business Financial Management
Human Resources
Administration and Information Support
Business
2 answers:
jeka943 years ago
4 0

Your answer is Human Resources

Hope it helps!

schepotkina [342]3 years ago
3 0

i believe the answer is Human Resources

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A disadvantage of the free cash flow valuation method is A. The free cash flow method is not used widely in practice. B. The ter
SSSSS [86.1K]

The main disadvantage of the valuation method is that the terminal value tends to dominate the total value in many cases.

In a free cash flow valuation, the intrinsic value equals present value of its free cash flow and thus, the net cash flow is left over for distribution to stockholders and debt-holders in each period.

  • So, the disadvantage of the free cash flow valuation method is that the terminal value tends to dominate the total value in many cases.

Hence, the Option B is correct.

Read more about this here

<em>brainly.com/question/22593826</em>

7 0
2 years ago
Eva, the owner of eva's second time around wedding dresses, currently has five dresses to be altered, shown in the order in whic
AlladinOne [14]
The correct answer is 2.2 hours.

I<span>f Eva uses the earliest due date priority rule, the order of the dresses will be as follows: W (1 hour processing time, 1 hour due); Y (2 hrs processing time, 3 hrs due); V (3 hrs processing time, 5 hrs due); Z (5 hrs processing time, 7 hrs due); X (4 hrs processing time, 9 hrs due).</span> 

It's easier to do the next step using real numbers. For example, if it's 11am now and W is due in 1 hour, then W is due at noon. If Y is due in 3 hours, then Y is due at 2pm, etc. Then, you need to use the processing time to see how long it will take to make the dresses. For example, since W takes one hour to process, it will be done by noon, its due date. 

This means that W and Y will be altered on time, V will be 1 hour late, Z will be 4 hours late, and X will be 6 hours late. To find the average tardiness, add these extra hours (1+4+6) = 11, and divide by the total number of dresses (even the ones that weren't late) 5: 11/5 = 2.2 hours.
8 0
3 years ago
Double D Ranch and Esau enter into a contract on August 1 for the sale of 200 cattle. Esau cancels the contract ten days later.
ycow [4]

Answer:

Keep the cattle and recover the contract price from Esau

Explanation:

Since in the question it is given that the Double D Ranch and Esau enter into a contract on August 1 for selling of 200 cattle.

But Esau cancels the contract after 10 days. Now the Double D Ranch is not able to sell the cattle to the another buyer so in this case , the Double D Ranch should keep the cattle and get back the price of the contract from the another party i.e Esau as he cancels the contract

3 0
3 years ago
You need to write a check for $167.50 from your checking account, which has a balance of $1,725.25. What percent of
Alex

Answer:

You need to write a check for $167.50 from your checking account, which has a balance of $1,725.25. What percent of  your balance will remain?

The percent balance will remain 90%

Explanation:

$1725.25 - $167.50= $1557.75

percentage left= 1557.75/1725.25 X 100

percentage left= 90.291= 90.30%

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The debt has an interest rate of 8.50% (short term) and 10.50% (long term). The expected rate of return on the company's shares
viva [34]

Answer:

Re = 16.02%

Explanation:

current stock price 36 x 7,660,000 = 275,760,000

cost of equity = 17.5%

current short term debt = 141,600,000

cost of short term debt = 8.5%

current long term debt = 210,600,000

cost of long term debt = 10.5%

total financing = 627,960,000

  • equity = 275,760,000 / 627,960,000 = 0.4391
  • short term debt = 141,600,000 / 627,960,000 = 0.2255
  • long term debt = 210,600,000 / 627,960,000 = 0.3354

WACC = (0.4391 x 0.175) + (0.2255 x 0.085 x 0.75) + (0.3354 x 0.105 x 0.75) = 0.0768 + 0.0144 + 0.0264 = 0.1176 or 11.76%

under the new structure:

total financing = 627,960,000

  • equity = 325,760,000 / 627,960,000 = 0.5188
  • short term debt = 141,600,000 / 627,960,000 = 0.2255
  • long term debt = 160,600,000 / 627,960,000 = 0.2557

assuming WACC remains unchanged:

0.1176 = (0.5188 x Re) + (0.2255 x 0.085 x 0.75) + (0.2557 x 0.105 x 0.75) = (0.5188 x Re) + 0.0144 + 0.0201 = (0.5188 x Re) + 0.0345

0.5188 x Re = 0.1176 - 0.0345 = 0.0831

Re = 0.0831 / 0.5188 = 0.1602 or 16.02%

4 0
3 years ago
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