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To solve this problem, we make use of the Binomial
Probability equation which is mathematically expressed as:
P = [n! / r! (n – r)!] p^r * q^(n – r)
where,
n = the total number of gadgets = 4
r = number of samples = 1 and 2 (since not more than 2)
p = probability of success of getting a defective gadget
q = probability of failure = 1 – p
Calculating for p:
p = 5 / 15 = 0.33
So,
q = 1 – 0.33 = 0.67
Calculating for P when r = 1:
P (r = 1) = [4! / 1! 3!] 0.33^1 * 0.67^3
P (r = 1) = 0.3970
Calculating for P when r = 2:
P (r = 2) = [4! / 2! 2!] 0.33^2 * 0.67^2
P (r = 2) = 0.2933
Therefore the total probability of not getting more than
2 defective gadgets is:
P = 0.3970 + 0.2933
P = 0.6903
Hence there is a 0.6903 chance or 69.03% probability of
not getting more than 2 defective gadgets.
Answer:
For number 1, you draw a line to the middle graph
For number 2, you draw a line to the bottom graph
For number 3, you draw a line to the top graph.
Step-by-step explanation:
To figure out where the graph goes, you only need to know if the point is on the graph. For the top graph, you know that the point 2,2 is on the graph so that means one part of the graph has to be 2 and 2. The x has to equal to and the y is equal 2. Therefore, you have to draw it to the bottom graph.
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15,2,31,13
Answer:
Solution given:a number that is divisible only by itself and 1 (e.g. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11).
now
all prime numbers are:
15,2,31,13
