Answer:
$77,217
$11,289
Explanation:
Fist we will calculate the present value of $10,000 payment
A fix Payment for a specified period of time is called annuity. The discounting of these payment on a specified rate is known as present value of annuity. The value of the annuity is also determined by the present value of annuity payment.
Formula for Present value of annuity is as follow
PV of annuity = P x [ ( 1- ( 1+ r )^-n ) / r ]
Where
P = Annual payment = $10,000
r = rate of return = 10% / 2 = 5%
n = number of period = 5 years x 2 semiannual payments per year = 10 payments
PV of annuity = $10,000 x [ ( 1- ( 1+ 0.05 )^-10 ) / 0.05 ]
PV of Annuity = $77,217
Now we will use the discounting method to calculate the present value of lump sum payment of $20,000
Present value = Future value x Present value factor
PV = FV x ( 1 + r )^-n
PV = $20,000 x ( 1 + 0.1 )^-6
PV = $11,289
Answer:
$417 A.
It is an adverse variance.
Explanation:
Fixed factory overhead volume variance is the difference between budgeted output at 100% normal capacity and actual production volume multiplied by standard fixed overhead cost per unit.
Formula
Fixed factory overhead volume variance = (budgeted standard hours for 100% normal capacity - Actual standard output hours) × standard fixed overhead cost per unit.
Calculation
Since 5900 units of a product was produced in 3.546 standard hours per unit, total actual standard hour is therefore;
= 5900×3.546
=20,921 hours
Overhead cost per unit = $1.10 per hour
Hours at 100% normal capacity = 21,300 hours.
Recall the formula for fixed factory overhead volume variance is =(budgeted standard hours for 100% normal output- actual standard output hours)× standard fixed overhead per unit.
Therefore;
Fixed factory overhead volume variance =(21,300 hours - 20,921 hours)× $1.10
=379 hours × $1.10
=$417 A
It is therefore an adverse variance.
Answer:
d. $96,914
Explanation:
Parker Co. can execute money market hedge in following steps:
(1) Parker Co. pledges Receivable of SF200,000 to borrow SF190,476 with rate 5% in Switzerland; SF190,476 = SF200,000/ (1+5%)
so it has to pay interest expense of SF9,524 in 360 days. The receivable of SF200,000 is enough for both principal and interest in 360 days.
(2) Then it sells SF190,476 at spot rate $0.48 to get $91,428
(3) Then it deposits $91,428 in US with rate 6% to get back $96,914 in 360 days
; $96,914 = $91,428 * (1+6%)
Answer:
C. A risk averse investor would choose the economy in which stock returns are independent because risk can be diversified away in a large portfolio.
Explanation:
if stock prices move together, (positive correlation), the volatility of the portfolio will be higher. Higher volatility means higher risk. This is the case with the first economy.
In the second economy however, the stocks are independent of each other meaning there is zero correlation between stocks and hence the portfolio volatility will be much lesser.
As a risk-averse investor you will prefer the portfolio with lower volatility for the same expected return.
Learning.
Or at least I believe so. Are there multiple choice?