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Alekssandra [29.7K]
3 years ago
15

Are the functions f(x) = (x^2-1)/(x-1) and g(x)= x+1 equal for all x?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Vinvika [58]3 years ago
7 0
\bf \textit{difference of squares}
\\ \quad \\
(a-b)(a+b) = a^2-b^2\qquad \qquad 
a^2-b^2 = (a-b)(a+b)\\\\
-------------------------------\\\\

\bf f(x)=\cfrac{x^2-1}{x-1}\implies f(x)=\cfrac{x^2-1^2}{x-1}\implies f(x)=\cfrac{(\underline{x-1})(x+1)}{\underline{x-1}}
\\\\\\
f(x)=x+1\qquad \qquad \qquad  \qquad  \qquad  g(x)=x+1\\\\
-------------------------------\\\\
\textit{they're, kinda, except that, when x = 1}
\\\\\\
g(x)=(1)+1\implies g(x)=2
\\\\\\
f(x)=\cfrac{(1)^2-1}{(1)-1}\implies f(x)=\cfrac{0}{0}\impliedby und efined
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Answer:

Option (b) is correct.

(2^\frac{1}{4} )^4=2^\frac{1}{4} \times 2^\frac{1}{4}\times 2^\frac{1}{4}\times 2^\frac{1}{4}=2^{(\frac{1}{4}+ \frac{1}{4}+ \frac{1}{4}+ \frac{1}{4} )}=2^{1}=2

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: (2^\frac{1}{4} )^4

We have too choose the correct simplification for the given statement.

Consider (2^\frac{1}{4} )^4

Using property of exponents, (a^m)^n=a^m\times a^m\times a^m\times ....\times (n\ times)

We have,

(2^\frac{1}{4} )^4=2^\frac{1}{4} \times 2^\frac{1}{4}\times 2^\frac{1}{4}\times 2^\frac{1}{4}

Again applying property of exponents  a^m\times a^m=a^{n+m}

We have,

(2^\frac{1}{4} )^4=2^{(\frac{1}{4}+ \frac{1}{4}+ \frac{1}{4}+ \frac{1}{4} )}

Simplify, we have,

(2^\frac{1}{4} )^4=2^{\frac{4}{4}}

we get,

(2^\frac{1}{4} )^4=2^{1}=2

Thus, (2^\frac{1}{4} )^4=2

Option (b) is correct.

   

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