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Andreas93 [3]
3 years ago
8

Tim wrote a negotiable note. Subsequently, Tim's debts were discharged in bankruptcy. If a holder in due course presents the not

e for payment, Tim does not have to pay.
True / False.
Business
1 answer:
fomenos3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

TRUE

Explanation:

Bankruptcy is a legal framework, in which borrowers who cannot pay their loans, may seek relief from all of their liabilities from individuals or other organizations. In most states, a judge's order mandates bankruptcy.

In this situation, Tim is a bankrupt person, tin wrote a negotiable note but now Tim has got relief from his liabilities, so he has not to pay against his negotiable note.

Therefore, the following situation is TRUE .

You might be interested in
One reason Congress expanded the exclusion of gain on the sale of a principal residence and eliminated the deferral provision wa
posledela

Answer:

The answer is:

If the gain resulting from selling their principal residence exceeds $500,000 for a married couple or $250,000 for a single filer.

The taxpayer doesn't qualify for the capital gains exclusion (e.g. maybe sold another property during the last year)

The taxpayer uses his principal residence for rental or commercial uses and depreciation may be allowed.

8 0
3 years ago
Galloway, Inc. has an odd dividend policy. The company just paid a dividend of $6 per share and has announced that it will incre
anzhelika [568]

Answer:

the present value of the stock is 26.57

This will be the amount willing to pay per share today.

Explanation:

We have to calculate the present value of the future dividend

\left[\begin{array}{ccc}Year&Cashflow&Present \: Value\\0&6&\\1&7&6.3636\\2&8&6.6116\\3&9&6.7618\\4&10&6.8301\\total&9.7&26.5671\\\end{array}\right]

\frac{Dividend}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV

We will put each dividend and their year into the formula and solve for PV

First Year

\frac{7}{(1 + 0.1)^{1} } = PV

Second Year

\frac{8}{(1 + 0.1)^{2} } = PV

Third Year

\frac{9}{(1 + 0.1)^{3} } = PV

Fourth Year

\frac{10}{(1 + 0.1)^{4} } = PV

The value of the stock is the sum of the present value of their dividend

The sum for this firm is 26.5671 = 26.57

6 0
3 years ago
Lossing Corporation applies manufacturing overhead to products on the basis of standard machine-hours. Budgeted and actual overh
timofeeve [1]

Answer:

$1,188 unfavorable

Explanation:

Volume variance = Budgeted fixed overhead cost - Fixed overhead applied to work in process.

$89,640 ÷ 8,300 machine hours

= $10.8 per machine hours

= $89,640 - ( 8,190 machine hours * $10.8 per machine hours )

= $89,640 - $88,452

= $1,188 unfavorable

4 0
3 years ago
According to W. E. B. Du Bois, "The true college will ever have one goal—not to earn meat, but to know the end and aim of that l
emmainna [20.7K]

Answer:

The correct answer is True.

Explanation:

Basically, Du Bios' message invites awareness of the true usefulness of education, which is not found within the productive environment but in service and satisfaction to others. Also, education has to be a process of self-growth where progress is internalized and people can feel the accomplishment of reaching an educational goal.

7 0
3 years ago
Brief Exercise 26-4 Manson Industries incurs unit costs of $7 ($5 variable and $2 fixed) in making an assembly part for its fini
mr_godi [17]

Answer:

differential loss for 14,700

Explanation:

\left[\begin{array}{cccc}&$Make&$Buy&$Differential&\\$Variable Cost&-73,500&-88,200&-14,700&\\$Fixed cost&-29,400&-29,400&0&\\$Total&-102,900&-117,600&-14,700&\\\end{array}\right]

We multiply the variable copst per unit by the 14,7000 units

then we add the fixed cost for the total cost for the make option

Then, we multiply the 14,700 by 6 for the buy option and add the unavoidable fixed cost.

In this case, it is not convinient to buy the assembly part as it would incour in a differential loss for 14,700

3 0
3 years ago
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