Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
The correct steps to solve the equation are:
Because 
So, solving we get:
Sum 3 on every side:
Dividing by 2 into both sides:
So, the answer is
Answer: 2 - 2*sin³(θ) - √1 -sin²(θ)
Step-by-step explanation: In the expression
cos(theta)*sin2(theta) − cos(theta)
sin (2θ) = 2 sin(θ)*cos(θ) ⇒ cos(θ)*2sin(θ)cos(θ) - cos(θ)
2cos²(θ)sin(θ) - cos(θ) if we use cos²(θ) = 1-sin²(θ)
2 [ (1 - sin²(θ))*sin(θ)] - cos(θ)
2 - 2sin²(θ)sin(θ) - cos(θ) ⇒ 2-2sin³(θ)-cos(θ) ; cos(θ) = √1 -sin²(θ)
2 - 2*sin³(θ) - √1 -sin²(θ)
We start with
$1,187.92
With the interest and the late fee charge
$1,187.92 (1 + 0.1225/12) + 30 = $1,230.05
With the interest minus the payment of $125
$1,230.05 (1 + 0.1225/12) - $125 = $1,117.60
The new principal after the latest payment is $1,117.60.
42 ÷ 63
63 -> 420
63x6=378
420-378=42
63->420
So, how many times does 63 go into 42? Well, it doesn't. So put down a zero on your paper, and then a decimal. So if we add a zero onto 42, it becomes 420. Well, 420 is divisible by 63. In fact, 63 goes into 420 6 times, making a total of 378. 420-378 = 42. Then the process begins again. So you've got a 0.6, and that six just keeps on repeating. On paper, you're gonna wanna put a dash over the six to show that it's repeating.
Anyways, the answer is .66 repeating.
π I don’t really know the answer I’m really sorry
