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3 years ago

12

1. Vânia preencheu os quadradinhos da conta abaixo com os algarismos 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 e 8. Ela usou todos os algarismos e obt

eve o maior resultado possível. Qual foi esse resultado?

1 answer:

Nonamiya [84]3 years ago

4 0

No seiiiierfgregregregggggggggggggggggggggggggggggggggggggg

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#7 I don't know how to solve this

____ [38]

30+1.95x=7.95x

so, 6x=30

x=5

3 0

3 years ago

Discrete math question. can you please make it easier to understand. thanks.

umka21 [38]

Answer:

It doesn't exist

Step-by-step explanation:

The graph must follow the handshake lemma: the sum of odd vertex degrees must be an even number: 1+3+5=9

4 0

3 years ago

Thirty percent of the students at a local high school face a disciplinary action of some kind before they graduate. Of those "fe

inna [77]

Answer:

Not independent

Step-by-step explanation:

For two events to be independent, they must not effect each other. For two independent events, changes in one of the event do not cause any change on the other event.

To explain it in terms of probability, let's first define and calculate the probabilities:

P(F) : Probability of facing felony

P(C) : Probability of going to college

P(F ∩ C) : Probability of facing felony and going to college

P(F° ∩ C): Probability of not facing a felony and going to college

Assume we have 100 students:

Faced felony = 0.3 * 100 = 30

Faced felony and go college = 30 * 0.4 = 12

Not faced felony = 0.7 * 100 = 70

Not faced felony and go college = 0.6 * 70 = 42

Total of going to college = 12 + 42 = 54

So P(C) = 54 / 100 = 0.54

If P(F)*P(C) = P(F ∩ C), then these two events are independent. If not, they are not independent.

Let's calculate the probabilities:

As given in the question, 30% of students face felony so P(F) = 0.3

P(C) = P(C ∩ F) + P(C ∩ F°) = 0.12 + 0.42 = 0.54

P(F) = 0.3

P(F ∩ C) = 0.12

P(F)*P(C) = 0.3 * 0.54 = 0.162 which ic not equal to P(F ∩ C). Therefore, these events are not independent.

5 0

3 years ago

Let x denote the lifetime of a mcchine component with an exponential distribution. The mean time for the component failure is 25

aliina [53]

Answer:

0.1353 = 13.53% probability that the lifetime exceeds the mean time by more than 1 standard deviations

Step-by-step explanation:

Exponential distribution:

The exponential probability distribution, with mean m, is described by the following equation:

$f(x) = \mu e^{-\mu x}$

In which $\mu = \frac{1}{m}$ is the decay parameter.

The probability that x is lower or equal to a is given by:

$P(X \leq x) = \int\limits^a_0 {f(x)} \, dx$

Which has the following solution:

$P(X \leq x) = 1 - e^{-\mu x}$

The probability of finding a value higher than x is:

$P(X > x) = 1 - P(X \leq x) = 1 - (1 - e^{-\mu x}) = e^{-\mu x}$

The mean time for the component failure is 2500 hours.

This means that $m = \frac{2500}, \mu = \frac{1}{2500} = 0.0004$

What is the probability that the lifetime exceeds the mean time by more than 1 standard deviations?

The standard deviation of the exponential distribution is the same as the mean, so this is P(X > 5000).

$P(X > x) = e^{-0.0004*5000} = 0.1353$

0.1353 = 13.53% probability that the lifetime exceeds the mean time by more than 1 standard deviations

4 0

2 years ago

If a lap is 440 yard how many laps would need to be completed to run a mile

Nataly_w [17]

1760 yards = 1 mile

Therefore we divide 1760 / 440 = 4 laps to run to complete a mile.

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers