Answer:
$3.40 Per Machine Hour
Explanation:
The computation of the predetermined overhead rate is shown below:
As we know that
Predetermined overhead rate is
= Estimated manufacturing overhead ÷ estimated machine hours
where,
Estiamted Manuafctuing overheads is
= Salary of Prodcution Supervisior + Indirect Material + rent on Factory Equipment
= $20,00 + $4,000 + $10,000
= $34,000
And, the estimated machine hours is 10,000
So, the predetermined overhead rate is
= $34,000 ÷ 10,000
= $3.40 Per Machine Hour
Answer:
67,600 tons
Explanation:
Weighted average costing adds the value of beginning inventory in the period cost to calculate the average cost per unit.
According to this method the equivalent units formula is as follow
Equivalent Units = Unit completed and transferred to Finished goods + Units in Work in Process x Completion percentage
Conversion
Equivalent Units = 55,000 + 18,000 x 70% = 67,600 units
A unique approach known as the capital asset pricing model or CAPM is employed in finance to determine the correlation between the risk of investing in a particular share and expected dividends. The expected returns for security are calculated using the CAPM model.
<h3>CAPM model</h3>
Required rate of return = Risk-free return + Beta (Market return - Risk-free return)
Required rate of return = 2.2% + 1.12 (11% - 2.2%)
Required rate of return = 12.05%
Hence, the correct option is D (12.05%).
The risk-free rate is the rate of return offered by an investment that carries zero risk. Every investment asset carries some level of risk, however small, so the risk-free rate is.
To learn more about CAPM models visit the link
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The answer to the question above is letter D. If Natasha has a gross income of $66,429. And has an adjustment of $14,490 for her business losses, $3,584 for her business expenses and $4,813 for her retirement contribution plan. The total remaining income is $43,542.
