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gogolik [260]
4 years ago
11

Please answer this for me, thanks

Mathematics
1 answer:
fredd [130]4 years ago
5 0
It’s an additional property
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Step-by-step explanation:

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(a) Estimate the area under the graph of f(x) = 2 cos(x) from x = 0 to x = π/2 using four approximating rectangles and right end
nirvana33 [79]
  <span>first, we are going to define variables as the following: 

a = 0 
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the reason because the actual estimate by integral as the following: 
π/2 
∫ 4cos(x) dx = 4 
0</span>
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4 0
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never [62]

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