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2 years ago

13

Determine the actual cost, including interest, of a $3,450 used car with a down payment of $200 and 48 monthly payments of 75$ e

ach.

1 answer:

Fantom [35]2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

$3,800

Step-by-step explanation:

$200 (down payment) + 48 x $75 (monthly payments)

$200 + $3600 = $3800

Since the original car was $3450, there was $350 in interest ($3800 - $3450 = $350)

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HELP ASAP 10 POINTS TO BRAINLIEST

Brilliant_brown [7]

Answer:

15%

Step-by-step explanation:

The cost of 2 adults and 2 children without the discount is

2 adults = 2 (55) = 110

2 children = 2 (45) = 90

Total cost = 110+90 = 200

The original price is 200 and the new price is 170

Percentage discount = (Original price - new price)/ original price * 100%

= (200-170)/200 * 100%

= 30/200 * 100%

= .15 * 100%

= 15%

6 0

3 years ago

Daniel [21]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

As the statement is ‘‘if and only if’’ we need to prove two implications

$f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective implies there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ .
If there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ , then $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective

Let us start by the first implication.

Our hypothesis is that the function $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective. From this we know that for every $y\in Y$ there exist, at least, one $x\in X$ such that $y=f(x)$ .

Now, define the sets $X_y = \{x\in X: y=f(x)\}$ . Notice that the set $X_y$ is the pre-image of the element $y$ . Also, from the fact that $f$ is a function we deduce that $X_{y_1}\cap X_{y_2}=\emptyset$ , and because $f$ the sets $X_y$ are no empty.

From each set $X_y$ choose only one element $x_y$ , and notice that $f(x_y)=y$ .

So, we can define the function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ as $h(y)=x_y$ . It is no difficult to conclude that $f\circ h(y) = f(x_y)=y$ . With this we have that $f\circ h=1_Y$ , and the prove is complete.

Now, let us prove the second implication.

We have that there exists a function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h=1_Y$ .

Take an element $y\in Y$ , then $f\circ h(y)=y$ . Now, write $x=h(y)$ and notice that $x\in X$ . Also, with this we have that $f(x)=y$ .

So, for every element $y\in Y$ we have found that an element $x\in X$ (recall that $x=h(y)$ ) such that $y=f(x)$ , which is equivalent to the fact that $f$ is surjective. Therefore, the prove is complete.

3 0

2 years ago

What shape is a rhombus related to and why

Ksju [112]

A rhombus is related to a “Parallelogram”

Why? - because it fulfills the requirements of a parallelogram: a quadrilateral with two pairs of parallel sides. It goes above and beyond that to also have four equal-length sides, but it is still a type of parallelogram.

hope this helped <3

8 0

2 years ago

Mei subscribed to a magazine at a rate of $24 for 12 issues. When she placed her order, Mei used a coupon that added 3 free bonu

lord [1]

Answer:

initial cost per issue=$2

after subscription cost per issue=$1.6.

Step-by-step explanation:

Initially , Mei subscribed $24 for 12 issues for a magazine .When Mei used a coupen then 3 free bonus issues added to her subcsription .Therefore we can see the coupon reduces the cost per issue of Mei's subscription. Before use of coupon the cost of each issue is $2 and after added 3 more issue of coupon then the cost per issue is $1.6

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The diagonals of a kite separate the quadrilateral into four congruent triangles

statuscvo [17]

<span>If the sum of two of the sides congruent to each other are greater than that of the sides opposite them, then no. If however the kite forms a rombus ot square, the diagnoles will form four congruent triangles with the base of both being the line of symmetry.
hope this helps :)</span>

6 0

2 years ago