The answer is .....ALOT. JK. the real answer is 6 or 7 new sweaters.
The <em>instantaneous</em> rate of change of <em>g</em> with respect to <em>x</em> at <em>x = π/3</em> is <em>1/2</em>.
<h3>How to determine the instantaneous rate of change of a given function</h3>
The <em>instantaneous</em> rate of change at a given value of
can be found by concept of derivative, which is described below:

Where
is the <em>difference</em> rate.
In this question we must find an expression for the <em>instantaneous</em> rate of change of
if
and evaluate the resulting expression for
. Then, we have the following procedure below:




Now we evaluate
for
:

The <em>instantaneous</em> rate of change of <em>g</em> with respect to <em>x</em> at <em>x = π/3</em> is <em>1/2</em>. 
To learn more on rates of change, we kindly invite to check this verified question: brainly.com/question/11606037
For a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us, with n=36 and p as 0.23, we can approximate p hat by a normal distribution.
Since n=36 , p=0.23 , thus q= 1-p = 1-0.23=0.77
therefore,
n*p= 36*0.23 =8.28>5
n*q = 36*0.77=27.22>5
and therefore, p hat can be approximated by a normal random variable, because n*p>5 and n*q>5.
The question is incomplete, a possible complete question is:
Suppose we have a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us.
Suppose n = 36 and p = 0.23. Can we approximate p hat by a normal distribution? Why? (Use 2 decimal places.)
n*p = ?
n*q = ?
Learn to know more about binomial experiments at
brainly.com/question/1580153
#SPJ4
Answer:
c.sss because they have the same angles and triangles