Answer:
read below
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
the answer is m=-3n-5/2 or n=2m+5/6
Option C is correct because it is a trinomial with a leading coefficient of 3 and a constant term of -5
Step-by-step explanation:
We need to pick the expression that matches this description:
A trinomial with a leading coefficient of 3 and a constant term of -5
First lets explain the terms:
Trinomial: a polynomial having 3 terms
Leading coefficient: The constant value of variable having highest power
Constant term: Having no variable and value cannot be changed.
Now using these definitions, we can choose the correct option
Option A is incorrect because the expression has 2 terms
Option B is incorrect because it is a trinomial but the leading coefficient is -5 and not 3 constant term is 3 and not -5.
Option C is correct because it is a trinomial with a leading coefficient of 3 and a constant term of -5
Option D is incorrect because it is a trinomial but the leading coefficient is 3 but constant term is 1 and not -5.
So, Option C is correct.
Keywords: Algebra
Learn more about Algebra at:
#learnwithBrainly
Happy Valentine's day!!! May God bless you!
Answer:
x = -5
Step-by-step explanation:
