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kotegsom [21]
3 years ago
5

Kevin is the human resource manager for a large company. he actually has a favorable attitude toward the handicapped in general.

however, he hasnt hired anyone who has a visible disability for any position that has come open in the company because his boss told him not to consider applicants who are handicapped. in this case, kevin
Business
1 answer:
prohojiy [21]3 years ago
7 0
<span>Kevin is the human resource manager for a large company. he actually has a favorable attitude toward the handicapped in general. however, he hasn't hired anyone who has a visible disability for any position that has come open in the company because his boss told him not to consider applicants who are handicapped.
</span>In this case, Kevin shows evidence of discrimination but not prejudice.
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Ben Lieber is a waiter at Harbor House, where he receives a weekly wage of $80 plus tips for a 40-hour workweek. Lieber's weekly
Dmitriy789 [7]

Answer:

$290

Explanation:

Fair labour standards act is a Federal law that specifies minimum wage, overtime pay eligibility, child labour standards, and record keeping which affects employees of both private and government institutions.

The Fair labour standards act state that the minimum wage an employee should collect per hour is $7.25.

So for a 40 hour week the minimum wage for Ben Lieber is 7.25* 40= $290

Provisions for FLSA include minimum wage payment, exemption from overtime, minimum wage for workers that provide companionship services, and exemption for worker that do computer related jobs.

4 0
2 years ago
Accounts Receivable As of December 31, 2016, Nala Incorporated reported accounts receivable for $275,000 less allowance for doub
juin [17]

Answer:

A.

1. Dr Accounts receivable $180,000

Cr Sales $180,000

2. Dr Cash $125,000

Cr Accounts receivable $125,000

3. Dr Sales returns and allowances $20,000

Cr Accounts receivable $20,000

4. Dr Allowance for doubtful accounts $35,000

Cr Accounts receivable $35,000

5. Dr Accounts receivable $2,500

Cr Allowance for doubtful accounts $2,500

Dr Cash $2,500

Cr Accounts receivable $2,500

B. Dr Bad debt expense $27,500

Cr Allowance for doubtful accounts $27,500

Explanation:

A1. To record the sale on account we will debit accounts receivable as our collectible to customer and credit sales in the amount of $180,000

A2. To record the collection, we will recognize the receipt of cash so we have to debit cash and credit accounts receivable to deduct the collectible balance in the amount of $125,000

A3. When the company receives returns from the customers, it will be charged to sales returns and allowances account so we have to debit it and credit accounts receivables in the amount of $20,000 to deduct collectibles to suppliers. Said, sales returns and allowances account is a contra account of sales. Thus, any amount recorded under it will be charged against (deduction) our sales.

A4. During the write off, we will debit allowance for doubtful accounts and credit accounts receivables to reduce its amount from the worthless receivables that is deemed to be uncollectible.

A5. Collection of previously written off receivables will resort to 2 entries. First, reversal of the original entry we made during the write off. So we debit Accounts receivable and credit allowance for doubtful accounts in the amount of $2,500. Next is to record the cash we received from the customer. So debit cash and credit accounts receivable in the same amount of $2,500.

B. To record the bad debt expense, we need to compute first the ending balance of the accounts receivable.

Beg $275,000 plus sales on account of $180,000 less collection $125,000, sales return of $20,000 and write off $35,000 = $275,000.

Bad debts is 10% of the Accounts receivable, so $275,000 x 10% = $27,500

Entry:

Dr bad debt expense $27,500

Cr allowance for doubtful accounts $27,500

7 0
3 years ago
Brian is a manager at a clothing store. He spends most of his time in the store with his employees, making sure they work their
Sophie [7]

Answer:

First line manager

Explanation:

First line managers are the lowest forms of managers in an organizational structure. They are the managers that deals with employees directly. They operate their departments by assigning work to the employees and monitoring their actions. In this case, the activities of Brian which included making sure they work their scheduled hours, watching them interact with customers and so on indicates that he is a First-Level Manager.

8 0
2 years ago
A company has the opportunity to take over a redevelopment project in an industrial area of a city. No immediate investment is r
Ganezh [65]

Answer:

1-a. The are multiple IRRs stated as follows:

The first IRR value = 4.09%

Second IRR value = 31.82%

1-b. Rate of return = 7.58%

2. This is NOT a good investment because the NPV is negative.

Explanation:

Note: The estimated Net Cash Flow for the 4th year in the data is erroneously stated in the question as a positive value instead as a negative value since it is a cost.

The estimated net cash flows correctly before answering the question as follows:

Year End             Net Cash Flow

1                             $500,000

2                            $300,000

3                            $100,000

4                          –$2,400,000

5                            $150,000

6                            $200,000

7                            $250,000

8                            $300,000

9                            $350,000

10                           $400,000

The explanation of the answers is now given as follows:

1-a. Tabulate the PW versus the interest rate and determine whether multiple IRRs exist.

Note: See Part 1-a of the attached excel file for the tabulation of the PW versus the interest rate.

From Part 1-a of the attached excel file, it can be observed that multiple IRRs exist. This is because there two IRRs stated as follows:

The first IRR value = 4.09%

Second IRR value = 31.82%

1-b. If so, use the ERR method when e 8% per year to determine a rate of return.

Note: See Part 1-a of the attached excel file for the calculation of total future value of income when e = 8% per year.

In the attached excel file, note that year 4 has a cost not income. Therefore,

From attached excel, we have:

Total Future Value of Income = $3,661,508.81

In the attached excel file, note that year 4 has a cost (not income) of $2,400,000. Therefore, it future value is not calculated. However, the present of the cost can be calculated as follows:

Present value of cost in year 4 = $2,400,000 / (100% + e)^4 = $2,400,000 / (100% + 8%)^4 = $1,764,071.65

The rate of return can now be calculated as follows:

Rate of return = ((Total Future Value of Income / Present value of cost in year 4)^(1/Number of period)) - 1 = (($3,661,508.81 / $1,764,071.65)^(1/10)) - 1 = 0.0758, or 7.58%

2. Use the PW method and a MARR of 18% to determine whether this is a good investment.

Note: See Part 2 of the attached excel file for the calculation of net present value (NPV).

From part 2 of the attached excel file, we have:

Net present value = –$21,043.15

Since the net present value is negative, this implies that this is NOT a good investment.

Download xlsx
5 0
2 years ago
Which of the following reflect the balances of prepayment accounts prior to adjustment?
egoroff_w [7]

Answer:

The answer is Balance sheet accounts are overstated and income statement accounts are understated.

Explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
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