Answer:
<h2>The correct answer in this case is option C. or MU(c)/P(c)>MU(d)/P(d).</h2>
Explanation:
Under consumer equilibrium theory for two commodity model,a rational consumer maximizes his or her utility when the marginal utility(MU) obtained from consuming one good is equal to the same of the other.This is the fundamental essence of the Law of Equimarginal Utility in Economics.Now,in this case,the consumer will purchase more of good C than good D if the Marginal utility obtained from one unit of good C or MU(c) for the money spend on consumption of good C or price of C,P(c) is greater than the marginal utility obtained from consuming 1 more unit of good D or MU(d) for money spend on purchase of good D or price of that particular unit of D or P(d).Therefore,since the marginal satisfaction compared to the amount of money spend for the consumer is higher for good C compared to the other or good D,it will increase the total utility level of the consumer from that particular consumption bundle or pattern.Hence,he or she will spend more on the consumption of good C than good D.
Answer:
The complete question is given in the explanation box below and the solutions to the problem is shown in the pictures attached herewith accordingly. Thank you.
Explanation:
a. Determine the degrees of freedom for this test.
b. Compute the test statistic.
c. Compute the p-value.
d. What is your conclusion? Let α = .05.
Answer:
$1,83,000
Explanation:
Sales = 4,535,000
Cost of goods sold = $2,560,000
Operating expenses = $1,382,000
Average total assets = $4,110,000
Net Income = Sales - Cost of goods sold - Operating expenses
= $4,535,000 - $2,560,000 - $1,382,000
= $5,93,000
Target income = 10% of Average total assets
= 0.10 × $4,110,000
= $410,000
Thus,
Residual income = Net income - Target income
= $5,93,000 - $410,000
= $1,83,000
I think the depreciation will be charged only on the value of the house so that would be $753000-134000=$619000 since the land wouldn't depreciate. The actual amount of depreciation I don't know, just that it will be based on this value of the building on the land.
The major financial change between post ww2 borrowers and borrowers after 1970 was that there were plenty of jobs after World War 2 and the economy was growing at a large extent.
Most of the people believed that their income would not change even though there were plenty of jobs in the economy.
However they all have a constant income from the year 1945 to 1970.
So all the people continued to borrow more and more money by not attending or joining any post war job in the economy.
Banks were also willing to lend more and more money as they were on the way of high earning through more lending but they get closed.
So after the war people continued to increase their loans and debt ratio in the economy of lending due to which it became the period of great depression.
To know more about post war borrowing here:
brainly.com/question/2675965
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