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Liula [17]
3 years ago
14

(( all - Same )) ----- Quadrilaterals are polygons

Mathematics
1 answer:
Marina CMI [18]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

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Solve the following system of equations:
Akimi4 [234]
It would have no solutions that's your answer.
6 0
2 years ago
Samples of 20 parts from a metal punching process are selected every hour. Typically, 1% of the parts require rework. Let X deno
Roman55 [17]

Answer:

a) P(X>np+3\sqrt{np(1-p)}=0.017

b) P(x>1)=0.190

c) P(Y>1)=0.651

Step-by-step explanation:

This a binomial experiment where success is denoted by parts that need rework.

X ∼ B(n, p); n = 20; p = 0.01

The expected value of X is: E(X) = np =20×0.01= 0.2

The variance is: Var(X) = np(1 − p) = 0.2 × 0.99 = 0.198,

The standard deviation SD(X)= \sqrt{0.198} ≈ 0.445

a) P(X>np+3\sqrt{np(1-p)}=P(X>0.2+3×0.445)=P(X>1.535)=P(X≥2)

Probability function is given by:

\frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!} *p^x*(1-p)^{(n-x)}

P(X≥2)=1-P(X<2)=1-P(X=1)-P(X=0)= 1 - \frac{20!}{1!(20-1)!} *(0.01)^{1}*(1-0.01)^{(20-1)}-\frac{20!}{0!(20-0)!} *(0.01)^{0}*(1-0.01)^{(20-0)}

P(X≥2)=1-0.165-0.818=0.017

b) p=0.04

P(x>1)=P(x≥2)= 1 - P(x=1) - P(x=0)= 1 - \frac{20!}{0!(20-1)!} *(0.04)^{1}*(1-0.04)^{(20-1)} - \frac{20!}{0!(20-0)!} *(0.04)^{0}*(1-0.04)^{(20-0)}

P(x>1)= 1 - 0.368 - 0.442=0.190

c) In this case we consider p=0.19 (Probability that X exceeds 1)

In this experiment Y is the number of hours and n= 5 hours.

Then, we check the probability in each hour:

P(Y>1)=1- P(Y=0)

P(Y=0)=\frac{5!}{0!(5-0)!} *(0.19)^{0}*(1-0.19)^{(5-0)}=0.349

P(Y>1)=1-0.349=0.651

3 0
2 years ago
Y = 10x + 100
velikii [3]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

10+100=1000

20+100=2000

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A bowling alley charges $2.50 per game plus $4 to rent shoes. A second bowling alley charges $4 per game plus $1 to rent shoes.
adelina 88 [10]

Answer:

The person would have to play 2 games for the two bowling alleys to cost the same amount

Step-by-step explanation:

Assume that the number of games that makes the two costs equal is x

∵ A bowling alley charges $2.50 per game plus $4 to rent shoes

∵ The number of games is x

∴ The cost = 2.50x + 4

∵ A second bowling alley charges $4 per game plus $1 to rent shoes

∵ The number of games is x

∴ The cost = 4x + 1

∵ They have the same cost

→ Equate the 2 expressions above

∴ 4x + 1 = 2.50x + 4

→ Subtract 2.50x from both sides

∵ 4x - 2.50x + 1 = 2.50x - 2.50x + 4

∴ 1.50x + 1 = 4

→ Subtract 1 from both sides

∵ 1.50x + 1 - 1 = 4 - 1

∴ 1.50x = 3

→ Divide both sides by 1.50

∴ x = 2

∴ The person would have to play 2 games for the two bowling alleys to

   cost the same amount

7 0
2 years ago
The measure of an angle is 6 less than 5 times its complement. what is the measure of the complement
TiliK225 [7]
Complimentary angles, when added, = 90 degrees
so if one angle is x, then its compliment is 90 - x

x = 5(90 - x) - 6
x = 450 - 5x - 6
x + 5x = 450 - 6
6x = 444
x = 444/6
x = 74

and its compliment is : 90 - x.....90 - 74 = 16 <==
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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