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drek231 [11]
3 years ago
7

Find the value of: (p+q)^0+1^p+q

Mathematics
1 answer:
MrMuchimi3 years ago
6 0

Answer: 2+q

Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago
Y = 1000x = _____???
Georgia [21]

Answer:

Simplifying

y = 1000X

Solving

y = 1000X

Solving for variable 'y'.

Move all terms containing y to the left, all other terms to the right.

Simplifying

y = 1000X

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
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Gnesinka [82]

C. e

Step-by-step explanation:

ln( {e}^{e} )  = e ln(e )  = e(1) = e

6 0
1 year ago
Three brothers Charlie Robert and Nicholas have 21 video games Charlie has twice as many games as Robert. Robert has 5 fewer gam
AVprozaik [17]

Answer:

The equation would be 4x-15=21.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given;

Total Number of Video games = 21

Let the number of video game Nicholas has be 'x'.

Now Given:

Robert has 5 fewer games than Nicholas.

so we can say that;

number of video game Robert has = x-5

Also Given:

Charlie has twice as many games as Robert.

so we can say that;

number of video game Charlie has = 2(x-5)=2x-10

we need to write the equation.

Solution:

Now we can say that;

Total Number of Video games is equal to sum of number of video game Nicholas has, number of video game Robert has and number of video game Charlie has.

framing the equation we get;

x+x-5+2x-10=21\\\\4x-15=21

Hence The equation would be 4x-15=21.

On Solving we get;

Adding both side by 15 we get;

4x-15+15=21+15\\\\4x=36

Dividing both side by 4 we get;

\frac{3x}{4}=\frac{36}{4}\\\\x=9

Hence Nicholas has = 9 video games

Robert has = x-5= 9-5=4 video games

Charlie has = 2x-10 = 2\times9-10=18-10=8 video games

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The one-time fling! Have you ever purchased an article of clothing (dress, sports jacket, etc.), worn the item once to a party,
rjkz [21]

Answer:

a)  0.2725

b)  0.7275

c)  0.8948

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a binomial distribution probability problem. The formula is:

P(x)=\frac{n!}{(n-x)!x!}p^{x}q^{n-x}

Where

n is the number of trials [here we are taking 8 person, so n = 8]

x is what we are looking for [in the problem]

p is the probability of success [ 15%, so p = 0.15

q is the probability of failure [q = 1-p = 0.85]

Now,

a)

We are looking for "no one" did fling, so x = 0

Let's put into formula and find out the probability:

P(x=0)=\frac{8!}{(8-0)!0!}(0.15)^{0}(0.85)^{8}\\P(x=0)=0.2725

So, the probability that no one has done a one-time fling is 0.2725

b)

Atleast 1 person means P(x ≥ 1).

This can be found by:

P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - P(x=0) = 1 - 0.2725 = 0.7275

THus, Probability that at least one person has done a one-time fling is 0.7275

c)

No more than 2 people means P (x≤2).

This is essentially

P ( x ≤ 2 ) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2)

P ( x = 0 ) is found in part (a), which is 0.2725

P (x = 1 ) and P(x=2) can be found using formula:

P(x=1)=\frac{8!}{(8-1)!1!}(0.15)^{1}(0.85)^{7}\\P(x=1)=0.3847

and

P(x=2)=\frac{8!}{(8-2)!2!}(0.15)^{2}(0.85)^{6}\\P(x=2)=0.2376

Thus,

P ( x ≤ 2 ) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2) = 0.2725 + 0.3847 + 0.2376 = 0.8948

8 0
3 years ago
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