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3 years ago

Given Δ ABD ≅ ΔEBD, what can you conclude?

Mathematics

2 answers:

Anna71 [15]3 years ago

8 0

You can conclude that AE = DE because the triangles are about equal

zloy xaker [14]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

the answer is D

Step-by-step explanation:

I just finished the test

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A study was conducted of 351 species of mammals worldwide. The

Reptile [31]

Answer:

95/351

Step-by-step explanation:

the first thing you must do is to add 140 and 94 and 22 together

you get 256

then you subtract 351 with 256 and get 95

and then you do this

95/351

8 0

2 years ago

What Is the Slope And Y Intercept Of This Line?<br><br> Y = X -5

asambeis [7]

Answer:

slope = 1 , y- intercept = - 5

Step-by-step explanation:

the equation of a line in slope- intercept form is

y = mx + c ( m is the slope and c the y-intercept )

y = x - 5 is in this form

with slope m = 1 and y- intercept c = - 5

6 0

3 years ago

A university found that 20% of its students withdraw without completing the introductory statistics course. Assume that 20 stude

EleoNora [17]

Answer:

a) $P(X \leq 2)= P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)$

And we can use the probability mass function and we got:

$P(X=0)=(20C0)(0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{20-0}=0.0115$

$P(X=1)=(20C1)(0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{20-1}=0.0576$

$P(X=2)=(20C2)(0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{20-2}=0.1369$

And adding we got:

$P(X \leq 2)=0.0115+0.0576+0.1369 = 0.2061$

b) $P(X=4)=(20C4)(0.2)^4 (1-0.2)^{20-4}=0.2182$

c) $P(X>3) = 1-P(X \leq 3) = 1- [P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)+P(X=3)]$

$P(X=0)=(20C0)(0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{20-0}=0.0115$

$P(X=1)=(20C1)(0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{20-1}=0.0576$

$P(X=2)=(20C2)(0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{20-2}=0.1369$

$P(X=3)=(20C3)(0.2)^3 (1-0.2)^{20-3}=0.2054$

And replacing we got:

$P(X>3) = 1-[0.0115+0.0576+0.1369+0.2054]= 1-0.4114= 0.5886$

d) $E(X) = 20*0.2= 4$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.2)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

Part a

We want this probability:

$P(X \leq 2)= P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)$

And we can use the probability mass function and we got:

$P(X=0)=(20C0)(0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{20-0}=0.0115$

$P(X=1)=(20C1)(0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{20-1}=0.0576$

$P(X=2)=(20C2)(0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{20-2}=0.1369$

And adding we got:

$P(X \leq 2)=0.0115+0.0576+0.1369 = 0.2061$

Part b

We want this probability:

$P(X=4)$

And using the probability mass function we got:

$P(X=4)=(20C4)(0.2)^4 (1-0.2)^{20-4}=0.2182$

Part c

We want this probability:

$P(X>3)$

We can use the complement rule and we got:

$P(X>3) = 1-P(X \leq 3) = 1- [P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)+P(X=3)]$

$P(X=0)=(20C0)(0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{20-0}=0.0115$

$P(X=1)=(20C1)(0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{20-1}=0.0576$

$P(X=2)=(20C2)(0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{20-2}=0.1369$

$P(X=3)=(20C3)(0.2)^3 (1-0.2)^{20-3}=0.2054$

And replacing we got:

$P(X>3) = 1-[0.0115+0.0576+0.1369+0.2054]= 1-0.4114= 0.5886$

Part d

The expected value is given by:

$E(X) = np$

And replacing we got:

$E(X) = 20*0.2= 4$

3 0

3 years ago

12. (2v^3 - v + 8) + (-v^3 + v - 3)<br><br> 14. (4h^3 + 3h + 1) - (-5h^3 + 6h - 2)

Lana71 [14]

12. On addition, you can just combine like terms.
2v^3+(-v^3)=v^3
-v+v cancels each other out
8+(-3)=5
So you have v^3+5

14 On subtraction, you have to remember to distribute the negative sign so after you do that you have:
4h^3+3h+1+5h^3-6h+2
Then you can combine like terms
4h^3+5h^3=9h^3
3h-6h=-3h
1+2=3
So you end up with:
9h^3-3h+3

Hope that helps and feel free to ask any questions.

7 0

3 years ago

Why is 4 + (-3) equal to 1?

gladu [14]

This is because 4+(-3) is also 4-3. So that equals 1

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers