Answer:
The CPA rebuts the allegations
Explanation:
The Securities Act of 1933 requires that investors receive financial and other significant information regarding any and all securities being sold publicly and prohibits deceit, misrepresentations, and other fraud in the sale of securities. Therefore, since there was material misstatement or omission in the financial statements, the only chance the CPA has is if they rebut the allegations. Meaning that they provide actual evidence, such as physical statements or witnesses that contradict or nullify the evidence that is being presented against them regarding the material misstatement or omission
Answer:
The effect that will happen on the net income is an increase in $6,000.
Explanation:
For this product, we have:
Price: $90.
Variable cost: $28
Allocated fixed cost: $18
There is an opportunity to sell 3,000 units at $30, and the firm has excess capacity.
As the allocated fixed cost only counts for the existing level of production (before accepting the 3,000 additional units), they don't matter in the decision.
With excess capacity, the firm only incurs in the variable cost of $28 per unit. If the price is $30, the variation in the net income will be:
The effect that will happen on the net income is an increase in $6,000.
Answer:
1.25
Explanation:
The Capital Asset Pricing model will be used
ße = ßa × [Ve + Vd(1 – T)] / Ve
Here
ße = 1.08
Ve = Value of equity $50 million
Vd = Value of debt $10 million
T is tax rate which is 21%.
By putting the values, we have:
ße = 1.08 × [50 + 10(1 – 21%)] / 50
ße = 1.25
The beta equity of Chocolate Cookie is 1.25 which shows higher risk than average risk.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: The receiving of cash from customers will have no effect on total assets, as the amount of inventory will decrease and the amount of cash will increase by the same amount. Thus the accounting equation will remain same from such a transaction as one asset will decrease and other will increase.
Thus, from the above we can conclude that the correct option is B.
Answer:
The long term capital gain= $30000-$25000
The long term capital gain= $5000
The basis in stock will be zero after the distribution.
Explanation:
Step 1 of 3
Tax treatment of amount distributed to shareholders:
The amount received as distribution to a shareholder under S Corporation is equal to the cash and fair market value of property distributed. The distribution is considered as tax-free to the limit that it does not exceed shareholder’s basis in the company’s stock. Any amount received in excess of basis will be treated as capital gain.
Step 2 of 3
However, taxation depends whether S Corporation has ever been a C Company or it posses’ accumulated earnings and profits. If it was never a C Corporation or doesn’t holds AEP then distribution equals to basis of share in S Corporation is a tax free gain for shareholder. Gain over and above basis is taxed as capital gains.
Step 3 of 3
In the given problem, C is a shareholder in S Corporation. He receives $30,000 as cash distribution. His basis in stock is $25,000. The distribution up to basis of stock is tax free distribution and above that is charged to capital gains. It is as follows-
Thus, capital gain of is taxable in hands of C. His basis in S Corporation will reduced to zero as entire distribution is over and above basis of his stock.
