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lora16 [44]
3 years ago
11

What is the solution? -10 = 2a – 4

Mathematics
2 answers:
DENIUS [597]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

a =  - 3

Step-by-step explanation:

- 10 = 2a  -  4 \\ 2a - 4 =  - 10 \\ 2a = 4 - 10 \\ 2a =  - 6 \\ a =  -  \frac{6}{2}  \\ a =  - 3

JulijaS [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

a = -3

Step-by-step explanation:

- 10 = 2a - 4

- 10 + 4 = 2a

- 6 = 2a

- 6/2 = a

- 3 = a

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Graph the line whose x-intercept is -1 and whose y-intercept is 4.<br> x<br> 5<br> ?
shepuryov [24]

Answer:

the x axis is the one that lies flat horizontal this is called the run. the y intercept is the one that goes up and down standing. now you have to plot a dot on the line x moving toward the negative 1 and go up to y meeting up to 4 and that should give you the line to graph

7 0
3 years ago
Urgent!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
MAVERICK [17]
24 right box VEDR - 6(4)
9 Left triangle VMR - 0.5 (6)(3)
24 + 9 = 33
6 0
2 years ago
Sam rented a truck for one day. There was a base fee of $16.95, and there was an additional charge of 73 cents for each mile dri
Naddik [55]

Answer:  134 miles

Step-by-step explanation:  

f(m) = 16.95 + 0.92m

140.23 = 16.95 + 0.92m

0.92m = 140.23 - 16.95

0.92m = 123.28

m = 123.28/0.92

m = 134 miles

5 0
2 years ago
Given a standard deck of 52 cards, 3 cards are dealt without replacement. Using this situation, answer the questions below.&lt;b
kherson [118]
Given that <span>3 cards are dealt without replacement in a </span><span>standard deck of 52 cards.

Part A:

There are 4 queens in a standard deck of 52 card, thus the probability that the first card is a queen is given by 4 / 52 = 1 / 13.

Since, the first card is not replaced, thus there are 3 queens remaining and 51 ards remaining in total, thus the probability that the second card is a queen is given</span> by 3 / 51 = 1 / 17

Similarly the probability that the third card is a queen is given by 2 / 50 = 1 / 25.

Therefore, the probability that <span>all three cards are queens is given by

\frac{1}{13} \times \frac{1}{17} \times \frac{1}{25} = \frac{1}{5525}



Part B:

Yes the probability of drawing a queen of heart is independent of the probability of drawing a queen of diamonds because they are separate cards and drawing one of the cards does not in any way affect the chance of drawing the other card.



Part C:

Given that the first card is a queen, then there are 3 queens remaining out of 51 cards remaining, thus the number of cards that are not queen is 51 - 3 = 48 cards.

Therefore, </span>if the first card is a queen, the probability that the second card will not be a queen is given by 48 / 51 = 16 / 17



Part D:

<span>Given that the first two card are queens, then there are 2 queens remaining out of 50 cards remaining.

Therefore, </span>if two of the three cards are queens ,<span>the probability that you will be dealt three queens</span> is given by 2 / 50 = 1 / 25 = 0.04



Part E:

<span>Given that the first two card are queens, then there are 2 queens remaining out of 50 cards remaining, thus the number of cards that are not queen is 50 - 2 = 48 cards.

Therefore, </span>if two of the three cards are queens ,the probability that the other card is not a queen is given by 48 / 50 = 24 / 25 = 0.96
8 0
3 years ago
2. What is the effective annual rate of an investment that pays 6% for 5 years, compounded semiannually?
Ede4ka [16]

Answer:

effective annual rate is 6.16 %

Step-by-step explanation:

given data

rate = 6 % = 0.06

time 5 year = 10 semi annually

to find out

effective annual rate

solution

we know formula for annual effective rate of interest is

rate of  interest = (1+ r/n)^{n} -1

put here all value

rate of interest = (1+ 0.06/10)^{10} -1

rate of  interest = (1+ 0.06/10)^{10} -1

rate of interest = 0.061646

so effective annual rate is 6.16 %

8 0
3 years ago
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